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irina1246 [14]
3 years ago
7

Narver Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. Operating data for the Lubricating Department

for the month of October appear below:
Units Percent Complete with Respect to Conversion

Beginning work in process inventory 6,600 60%

Transferred in from the prior department during October 40,100

Completed and transferred to the next department during October

37,100

Ending work in process inventory 9,600 80%



What were the equivalent units for conversion costs in the Lubricating Department for October?
Business
1 answer:
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

44,780 units

Explanation:

When a company uses the weighted average method in its process costing system, the beginning inventory nor the units transferred in are included in the calculations for equivalent units. Only units transferred out and ending inventory are use to calculate equivalent units:

equivalent units = units transferred out + (ending inventory x % of completion)}

equivalent units = 37,100 units + (9,600 units x 80%) = 37,100 units + 7,680 units = 44,780 units

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The owner of a bicycle repair shop forecasts revenues of $236,000 a year. Variable costs will be $69,000, and rental costs for t
maria [59]

Answer:

A. $71,200

Bi)$100,200

Bii)$100,200

Biii)$100,200

Explanation:

A. Preparation of an income statement for the shop based on thee estimates

INCOME STATEMENT

Revenues $236,000

Expenses:

Variable costs $69,000

Rental cost $49,000

Depreciation $29,000

Total Expenses $147,000

Tax profit $89,000

($236,000-$147,000)

Less Income Tax (at 20%) $17,800

(20%*$89,000)

Net Income $71,200

($89,000-$17,800)

Therefore Net Income will be $71,200

bi) Calculation for the operating cash flow by using dollars in minus dollars out method

Using this formula

Operating cash flow=Revenue-Cash expenses-Taxes

Let plug in the formula

Operating cash flow=$236,000-($69,000+$49,000)-$17,800

Operating cash flow=$236,000-$118,000-$17,800

Operating cash flow=$100,200

Therefore the operating cash flow by using dollars in minus dollars out method will be $100,200

bii) Calculation of the operating cash flow by using adjusted accounting profits,

Adjusted accounting profit=$71,200+$29,000

Adjusted accounting profits=$100,200

Therefore the operating cash flow by using adjusted accounting profits will be $100,200

biii)Calculate the operating cash flow by using after tax operating cash flow

After tax operating cash flow=[$236,000-($69,000+$49,000)]*(1-0.20)+(0.20*$29,000)

After tax operating cash flow=($236,000-$118,000)*0.80+$5,800

After tax operating cash flow=($118,000*0.80)+$5,800

After tax operating cash flow=$94,400+$5,800

After tax operating cash flow=$100,200

Therefore the operating cash flow by using after tax operating cash flow will be $100,200

4 0
2 years ago
Capricorn Creative Inc., a U.S. based advertising firm, was the first in the advertising industry to identify the growth potenti
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

Option A-First mover advantage

Explanation:

The first mover advantage is the advantage to the firm who first steps in to take the risks to ensure future benefits in the long term perspective. The particular example includes of TaTa company in India which has more than 90% of the market and was the first company in India that tried to meet requirements of every class of person, small and medium organization to large corporations. This increased production helped the company to gain economies of scale and the country import policies also though do helped the company.

Furthermore, here the advertising firm is not investing but is a means of investment for many investors which means it has no investment in the country and hence there are no forward integration and lateral diversification.

It can also be noted that the company was not transferring its technology in the state option E is also incorrect.

The unrelated differentiation comes when the firm offer its customers a uniqueness of product services which in this case can not be seen prominent. The company advertises similar to other advertises like the other firms and is not pursuing unrelated differentiation so the option C is also incorrect.

3 0
3 years ago
EXCESS CAPACITY Williamson Industries has $7 billion in sales and $1.944 billion in fixed assets. Currently, the company’s fixed
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

a. <u>Calculation of level of sales</u>

Level of sales = Sales / Operating capacity

= 7,000,000,000/90%

= $7,777,777,777.78

b. <u>Calculation of Target fixed Assets/Sales ratio</u>

Fixed assets sales ratio = Fixed assets / Level of sales

= 1,944,000,000/7,777,777,777.78

= 0.249942857

= 0.25

c. <u>Calculation of Increase in Fixed assets</u>

Increase in fixed assets = Fixed assets sales ratio * (Increase in sales - Level of sales)

= 0.249942857 * (7,000,000,000*1+15% - 7,777,777,777.78)

= 0.249942857 * (8,050,000,000 - 7,777,777,777.78)

= 0.249942857 * 272,222,222.222

= $68,040,000.

8 0
3 years ago
"An inflationary gap exists when AD and SRAS" :
lozanna [386]

Answer: The Answer IS A.

Explanation: fail to Intersect

8 0
3 years ago
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Nutech Corp. is expecting the following cash flows—$79,000, $112,000, $164,000, $84,000, and $242,000—over the next five years.
Alja [10]

Answer:

$429,560

Explanation:

Present value will be calculated through the PV formula,

PV = \frac{C1}{1+r}  + \frac{C2}{(1+r)^{2} } + \frac{C3}{(1+r)^{3}} + \frac{C4}{(1+r)^{4}} + \frac{C5}{(1+r)^{5}}

r = 15%

C1 = $79,000 ,C2 = $112,000 ,C3 = $164,000 ,C4 = $84,000 ,C5 = $242,000

Substituting the values in the formula,

PV = \frac{79,000}{1.15}  + \frac{112,000}{(1.15)^{2} } + \frac{164,000}{(1.15)^{3}} + \frac{84,000}{(1.15)^{4}} + \frac{242,000}{(1.15)^{5}}

PV = 68,695.66 + 84,688 + 107,838 + 48,030.2 + 120,338.14

PV = $429,560

The present value of the cash flows of Nutech Corp. over the next five years is $429,560.

8 0
3 years ago
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