Hello,
x²+2*3x+3²+7-9=0
==>(x+3)²-2=0
==>(x+3-√2)(x+3+√2)=0
==> x=-3+√2 or x=-3-√2
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
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#1. I think the answer is B because when you estimate, round 328.9 to 329 and 7 3/4 to 8. Divide 329 by 8 which is 41.125 which is closest to 40.
#2. 25% because 25% times 80 is 20.
Answer:
704 cm
Step-by-step explanation:
The two triangles are 8x12=96 and since there are two triangles 96x2=192.
Next you do the top and bottom rectangles 10x16=160 and the two rectangles are the same size so 160x2=320.
Now you do the middle rectangle 16x12=192.
Now you add all the areas together 192+320=512+192=704cm.
So the answer is 704 cm!
Assuming the function is
, and not
which would be its own Maclaurin polynomial right away.
Recall the geometric power series,
where
. Replace
and we have
and so
We want the 4th degree polynomial, so
