Answer:
Abbot makes a savings of $74,000 in the current year.
Review full presentation of answers in the attaches
Explanation:
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
$500 gain and $185 tax
Explanation:
Sale of share = No. of NQOs × No. of shares × Selling price per share
= 10 × 10 × $20
= $2,000
Basis = No. of NQOs × No. of shares × share price @$15
= 10 × 10 × $15
= $1,500
Gain realised = Sale of share - Basis
= $2,000 - $1,500
= $500
The tax is calculated as follows:
= Gain realised × marginal tax rate
= $500 × 37%
= $185
Answer:
$3,200 overapplied
Explanation:
The computation of the total underapplied or overapplied factory overhead is shown below:
Given that
Actual total factory overhead costs incurred is $45,400
Now Overhead applied to production
= (Total factory overhead application rate per standard DLH × Standard direct labor hours allowed)
= $2.70 × 18,000
= $48,600
As we can see that the overhead applied amount is more than the actual amount so the overhead cost would be overapplied i.e.
= $48,600 - $45,400
= $3,200 overapplied
Answer:
Timing Risk
Explanation:
Timing risk is a type of investment risks that a trade will not be performed at the best market price.
