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Tanzania [10]
3 years ago
14

The primary goal of a financial manager is​ ________. A. maximizing wealth B. minimizing return C. minimizing risk D. maximizing

profit
Business
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D. maximizing profit

Explanation:

Maximizing profit because maximizing wealth may also maximize expenses by a certain limit . Minimizing return or risk may not result in maximum profit.

Maximum profit may help the business to develop grow and have the best results. The primary objective of financial managers is to make the business and company more worthy to its owners employees etc. This is achieved by getting the maximum profits. The maximum profits in turn reward every person connected with the company.

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A trader wants to gain a profit by expecting a significant move in either direction of the underlying stock. Which strategy best
alexira [117]

The best strategy for this trader, who wants to profit from either direction of the underlying stock, is <em>A. Long Put and C. Short Call.</em>

In securities trading, a call option gives the trader the <em>right to purchase </em>underlying security <em>without any obligation</em>.  On the other hand, a put option grants the trader the <em>right to sell</em> the underlying security <em>without any obligation</em>.

Thus, the trader will profit by using options A and C.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/24767538

3 0
3 years ago
You are the beneficiary of a life insurance policy. The insurance company informs you that you have two options for receiving th
lara [203]

Answer:

E. You should accept the $200,000 because the payments are only worth $195,413 to you today

Explanation:

We solve for the presnet value of an annuity of 20 year of $1400 at 0.5% discount rate

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 1,400.00

time 240 (20 years x 12 month per year)

rate 0.005 (6% / 12 monhts = 0.5% = 0.5/100 = 0.005)

1400 \times \frac{1-(1+0.005)^{-240} }{0.005} = PV\\

PV $195,413.0804

7 0
3 years ago
"A customer owns 200 shares of ABC, purchased 2 years ago at $50 per share. The current market value of ABC stock is $60 per sha
kirza4 [7]

Answer: The donor may incur a gift tax liability. Also, the cost basis will be $50 per share to the recipient of the gift.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that a customer owns 200 shares of ABC, that were bought 2 years ago at $50 per share and that the current market value of ABC stock is $60 per share.

If the customer gifts the stock to his son, the result is the donor may incur a gift tax liability. Also, the cost basis will be $50 per share to the recipient of the gift.

7 0
3 years ago
In a business-to-business transaction, the seller offers the buyer a 2 percent discount for paying a bill early. Assuming the us
chubhunter [2.5K]

Assuming the user took advantage of this offer, the amount that would be discounted on a $10,000 invoice is: $200.

<h3>Discounted amount </h3>

Using this formula

Discounted amount =Discount rate× Invoice

Let plug in the formula

Discounted amount=2%×$10,000

Discounted amount=$200

Therefore assuming the user took advantage of this offer, the amount that would be discounted on a $10,000 invoice is: $200.

Learn more about Discounted amount  here:brainly.com/question/12965533

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Sean Davis is the owner, president, and primary salesperson for Davis Manufacturing. Because of this, the company's profits are
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

The related cash flows to Sean are as follows;

a. $424,000

b. $592,000

c.$399,808

d. $512,885

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate cash flows to Davis manufacturing given that debt is issues and equity is issued for a number of hour-week

We proceed as follows;

a. For a 40 - hour week and Debt is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated below as follows;

Cash Flow = EBIT - Interest on debt = $594,000 - ($1.7 million x 10%) = $424,000

b. For a 50 - hour week and Debt is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows;

Cash Flow = EBIT - Interest on debt = $762,000 - ($1.7 million x 10%) = $592,000

c. For a 40 - hour week and Equity is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows;

In this case, there will be no interest cost

The firm's value will be increased by the amount of infusion but ownership of sean will be diluted.

New ownership of Sean = $3.5 million / ($3.5 million + $1.7 million) = 0.67307692307

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows

Cash Flow to Sean = EBIT x new share = $594,000 x 0.67307692307 =  $399,808

d. For a 50 - hour week and Equity is issued

The calculation is as above and there is also no interest course

Cash Flow = EBIT x new share = $762,000 x 0.67307692307 =  $512,885

KINDLY NOTE EBIT IS EARNINGS BEFORE INTEREST AND TAXES

5 0
3 years ago
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