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miskamm [114]
3 years ago
7

Ana Carillo and Associates is a medium-sized company located near a large metropolitan area in the Midwest. The company manufact

ures cabinets of mahogany, oak, and other fine woods for use in expensive homes, restaurants, and hotels. Although some of the work is custom, many of the cabinets are a standard size. One such non-custom model is called Luxury Base Frame. Normal production is 1,000 units. Each unit has a direct labor hour standard of 5 hours. Overhead is applied to production based on standard direct labor hours. During the most recent month, only 1,120 units were produced; 4,500 direct labor hours were allowed for standard production, but only 4,000 hours were used. Standard and actual overhead costs were as follows.
Standard (1,000 units) Actual (1,120 units)
Indirect materials $15,800 $16,200
Indirect labor 56,600 67,100
(Fixed) Manufacturing supervisors
salaries 29,600 28,900
(Fixed) Manufacturing office
employees salaries 17,100 16,400
(Fixed) Engineering costs 35,500 32,900
Computer costs 13,100 13,100
Electricity 3,300 3,300
(Fixed) Manufacturing building
depreciation 10,500 10,500
(Fixed) Machinery depreciation 3,900 3,900
(Fixed) Trucks and forklift depreciation 2,000 2,000
Small tools 900 1,800
(Fixed) Insurance 700 700
(Fixed) Property taxes 400 400
Total $189,400 $197,200
Calculate the total overhead variance, controllable variance, and volume variance.
Total overhead variance -20710 T Unfavorable
Controllable variance 14710 | Unfavorable
Volume variance -6000 T Unfavorable
Business
1 answer:
Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

total budgeted costs = $189,400

budgeted production = 1,000 units

standard rate = $189,400 / 1,000 = $189.40 per unit

total actual costs = $197,200

actual production = 1,120 units

actual rate = $197,200 / 1,120 = $176.07 per unit

  1. total fixed overhead variance = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs =  $197,200 - $189,400 = $7,800 unfavorable. The actual overhead expense was higher than the budgeted.
  2. controllable variance = (actual rate - standard rate) x actual units = ($176.07 - $189.40) x 1,120 units = -$14,929.60 favorable. The actual overhead rate was lower than the standard rate, that is why the variance is positive.
  3. volume variance = (standard activity - actual activity) x standard rate = (1,000 - 1,120) x $189.40 = -1,120 x $189.40 = -$212,128 favorable. More units where produced than budgeted, that is why the variance is positive.

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Answer:

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(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the  Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

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Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

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Answer:

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In the given case, the foregone rental income Jacques would've earned had he chosen to rent out his showroom represents opportunity cost or implicit cost.

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Answer:

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