Answer:
First term: 5
Fourth term: 5 1/2
Tenth term: 6 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's find the first, fourth and tenth terms of the arithmetic sequence described by the given rule:
A(n) = 5 + (n-1) (1/6)
First term:
A(1) = 5 + (1-1) (1/6)
A(1) = 5 + (0) (1/6)
A(1) = 5
Fourth term:
A(4) = 5 + (4-1) (1/6)
A(4) = 5 + (3) (1/6)
A(4) = 5 + 3/6 = 5 3/6 = 5 1/2 (simplifying)
Tenth term:
A(10) = 5 + (10-1) (1/6)
A(10) = 5 + (9) (1/6)
A (10) = 5 + 9/6 = 6 3/6 = 6 1/2 (simplifying)
Answer:
See example below.
Step-by-step explanation:
The image of a triangle will be 5/6 the size. It will be slightly smaller than the original. For example, if the side measurement of the triangle on one side is 12 then the image of the triangle after a dilation will be 12*5/6 = 60/6 = 10.
The new side length is 10 slightly smaller than 12.
Answer: 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Experimental probability is the actual result you get from an experement.
Theoretical probability is the change that you will get that result.
(for example: flipping a coin, the Theoretical probability is 50/50 but after testing the Experimental probability might be 47/53)
therefore,
1/6 is the Theoretical probability because you are using a six-sided number cube.
for the Theoretical probability and the Experimental probability to be the same, the fraction of the roll must equal 1/6.
1/6 equals 8/48.
therefore, since the numbers 1 and 6 were both rolled 8 times out of 48 they are consistant with the Theoretical probability of 1/6.
6 is not one of the answer choices listed so 1 must be your answer.
Answer:The amount to be paid within the discount period is $980
Step-by-step explanation:
The term 2/10, n45
means that 2% discount is offered if the amount of invoice is paid within 10 days from the date of invoice .
n/45 means that the buyer will pay the full amount within 45 days if he /she does not pay within the discount period of 10 days .
Now if the amount is to be paid within the discount period, the amount will be
Amount to be paid= $1000- 2% of 1000
= $1000-20
=$980
The answer is 42 why, because 42 divided by 6 equals 7 plus 14 is 21 and then you double it so it's 42.
