The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.
To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.
<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>
- It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
- We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,
- Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,
Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.
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Relative to the positive horizontal axis, rope 1 makes an angle of 90 + 20 = 110 degrees, while rope 2 makes an angle of 90 - 30 = 60 degrees.
By Newton's second law,
- the net horizontal force acting on the beam is
where 
are the magnitudes of the tensions in ropes 1 and 2, respectively;
- the net vertical force acting on the beam is
where 
and 
.
Eliminating 
, we have
Solve for .
Scientists measure the time between the arrival of an earthquake's __P____ and ___S____ waves to help determine the distance between the recording seismograph and the earthquake epicenter.
Explanation:
P- (compressional) and S- (shear) waves produced in earthquakes travel at different speeds. P waves are faster than S waves and hence will be detected first by a seismograph after an earthquake. The further away a seismograph is from the epicenter of an earthquake, the longer the time difference between the two (2) waves will be.
Using several, at least 3, seismographs located at different geoghraphical locations and detecting earthquakes, geologists can extrapolate the epicenter of an earthquake using the time differences in arrivals of the two waves in each of the seismographs, using the mathematics of triangulation.
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Answer:
a) a = - 0.106 m/s^2 (←)
b) T = 12215.1064 N
Explanation:
If
F₁ = 9*1350 N = 12150 N (→)
F₂ = 9*1365 N = 12285 N (←)
∑Fx = M*a = (M₁ +M₂)*a (→)
F₁ - F₂ = (M₁ +M₂)*a
→ a = (F₁ - F₂) / (M₁ +M₂ ) = (12150-12285)N/(9*68+9*73)Kg
→ a = - 0.106 m/s^2 (←)
(b) What is the tension in the section of rope between the teams?
If we apply ∑Fx = M*a for the team 1
F₁ - T = - M₁*a ⇒ T = F₁ + M₁*a
⇒ T = 12150 N + (9 * 68 Kg)*(0.106 m/s^2)
⇒ T = 12215.1064 N
If we choose the team 2 we get
- F₂ + T = - M₂*a ⇒ T = F₂ - M₂*a
⇒ T = 12285 N - (9 * 73 Kg)*(0.106 m/s^2)
⇒ T = 12215.1064 N
Answer:
Explanation:
To solve this, we start by using one of the equations of motion. The very first one, in fact
1
V = U + at.
V = 0 + 0.8 * 3.4 = 2.72 m/s.
2.
V = 0 + 0.8 * 4.3 = 3.44 m/s.
3.
d = ½ * 0.8 * 4.3² + 3.44 * 12.9
d = 7.396 + 44.376
d = 51.77 m.
4.
d = 62 - 51.77 = 10.23 m. = Distance
traveled during deceleration.
a = (V² - Vo²) / 2d.
a = (0² - 3.44²) / 20.46
a = -11.8336 / 20.46 = -0.58 m/s²
5.
t = (V - Vo)/a =(0 - 3.44) / -0.58
t = -3.44/-.58 = 5.93 s
= Stop time.
T = 4.3 + 12.9 + 5.93 = 23.13 s. = Total
time the hare was moving.
6.
d = Vo * t + ½ * a * t² = 62 m.
0 + 0.5 * (23.13)² * a = 61
267.5a = 61
a = 61/267.5
a = 0.23 m/s²
