Answer:
101.12 million
Explanation:
<em>The present value of a future cash flow is the amount that can be invested today at a particular rate for a certain number of years to have the future cash flow </em>
The present value of the liability
= FV × (1+r)^(-n)
= 800 × (1.09)^(-24)
= 101.12 million
The present value of this liability= 101.12 million
Answer:
you did the questions right . very good
Answer with explanation:
It is better for companies to offer a mixture of compensation programs instead of only one since it attracts a major number of competent workers. Some employees might be very selective at the time of choosing a job according to the benefits they could receive. For instance, a high executive could prefer to start working in an "A" firm since they organization offers an attractive number of stock shares per year as part of the compensation program instead of working for firm "B" that is not even publicly listed.
Answer:
The answer is
1. -$96 million
2. 0.52:1
Explanation:
1. Working capital = total current assets - total current liabilities
Current assets:
Cash. $ 31.9 million
Accounts receivable $21.0 million
Inventory $28.1 million
Other current assets. $23.0 milllion
Total current assets $104.0 million
And current liabilities is$200.0 million
Therefore, working capital is:
$104 - $200
= -$96 million
2. Current ratio = current assets/current liabilities
$104 million / 200 miliion
=0.52:1
