If there are no repeating x values and an x value only goes to <em>one</em><em> </em>y value, then yes, it is a function.
<em><u>p</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>s</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>m</u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>r</u></em><em><u>k</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>m</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>s</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>b</u></em><em><u>r</u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>i</u></em><em><u>n</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>i</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u>s</u></em><em><u>t</u></em><em><u>!</u></em><em><u>!</u></em>
We can write the sequence out more fully, as we can see each time it is divided by 6.
60, 60/6, 60/6^2, 60/6^3, and so on.
Therefore we know the sequence can be written as
You can think of this as a graph, i.e. y=60/6^(x-1)
As a result, as x tends to infinity, y tends to 0 (since it effectively becomes 60/infinity). Therefore the sequence
converges toward zero.
Answer:
B)8
Step-by-step explanation:
That is the right answer because when y=12, x=-6
12/-6 = -2
This means that x = y/-2
or y = x * -2
-4 * -2 = 8
Hope I helped