Answer:
C. $50,000
Explanation:
Under IFRS section IAS 36, an impairment loss results from an asset's carrying value being lower than its fair market value or value in use. In this case, the fair market value of the asset (the price at which it could be sold) is $300,000, while its value in use is $400,000 (discounted to present value). In order to calculate the impairment loss, we must use the highest, in this case the value in use.
Impairment loss = $450,000 (carrying value) - $400,000 (value in use) = $50,000
Answer:
an abbreviation for people
Explanation:
hope it helps
Answer:
Debit to interest expenses for $259
Explanation:
Entry of Payment
Date Account Title and Explanation Debit Credit
Mar 31. Note Payable $51,873
Interest expenses $259
($51,873 * 6% * 30/360)
Cash $52,132
(TO record payment)
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
As the general price level decreases or falls, people will want to hold less money, so the interest rate falls.
As price level falls, value of money decreases because a unit of money will more of goods or services.
During this period people will want to hold less money because of the decrease in value and the excess money will be deposited in banks.
With this, the banks have more money to lend out and this will make the bank to reduce its Interest rate.
Answer:
c. $3,443
Explanation:
Date Account Titles Debit Credit
Jan 1 Cash 101370
Bond payable 97000
Premium on issue of bonds 4,370
(101370-97000)
Jul 1 Interest expenses (3680 - 437) 3,443
Premium on issue on bond 437
(4379/5 * 6/12)
Cash (97,000*8%*6/12) 3,800