Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

9

Solve the absolute value equation,if possible. If there is no solution, explain. I 5x + 10 I = -7

1 answer:

Ludmilka [50]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

No solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

The range of the abs. val. function is [0, infinity). In other words, the output of this function is never negative. Thus, the equation you have posted has no solution.

You might be interested in

Leroy baked 63 cookies with 9 scoops of flour. How many scoops of flour does Leroy need in order to bake 70 cookies? Solve using

Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

10.

Step-by-step explanation:

63 cookies = 9 scoops of flour.

<u>If we go up once with another scoop of flour,</u>

<u>you should get this:</u>

70 cookies = 10 scoops of flour.

6 0

1 year ago

Consider the following differential equation to be solved by undetermined coefficients. y(4) − 2y''' + y'' = ex + 1 Write the gi

kompoz [17]

Answer:

The general solution is

$y= (C_{1}+C_{1}x) e^0x+(C_{3}+C_{4}x) e^x +\frac{1}{2} (e^x(x^2-2x+2)-e^x(2(x-1)+e^x(2))$

+ $\frac{x^2}{2}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Step :1:-

Given differential equation y(4) − 2y''' + y'' = e^x + 1

The differential operator form of the given differential equation

$(D^4 -2D^3+D^2)y = e^x+1$

comparing f(D)y = e^ x+1

The auxiliary equation (A.E) f(m) = 0

$m^4 -2m^3+m^2 = 0$

$m^2(m^2 -2m+1) = 0$

$(m^2 -2m+1) this is the expansion of (a-b)^2$

$m^2 =0 and (m-1)^2 =0$

The roots are m=0,0 and m =1,1

complementary function is $y_{c} = (C_{1}+C_{1}x) e^0x+(C_{3}+C_{4}x) e^x$

<u>Step 2</u>:-

The particular equation is $\frac{1}{f(D)} Q$

P.I = $\frac{1}{D^2(D-1)^2} e^x+1$

P.I = $\frac{1}{D^2(D-1)^2} e^x+\frac{1}{D^2(D-1)^2}e^{0x}$

P.I = $I_{1} +I_{2}$

$\frac{1}{D^2} (\frac{x^2}{2!} )e^x + \frac{1}{D^{2} } e^{0x}$

$\frac{1}{D} means integration$

$\frac{1}{D^2} (\frac{x^2}{2!} )e^x = \frac{1}{2D} \int\limits {x^2e^x} \, dx$

applying in integration u v formula

$\int\limits {uv} \, dx = u\int\limits {v} \, dx - \int\limits ({u^{l}\int\limits{v} \, dx } )\, dx$

$I_{1}$ = $\frac{1}{D^2(D-1)^2} e^x$

$\frac{1}{2D} (e^x(x^2)-e^x(2x)+e^x(2))$

$\frac{1}{2} (e^x(x^2-2x+2)-e^x(2(x-1)+e^x(2))$

$I_{2}$ $= \frac{1}{D^2(D-1)^2}e^{0x}$

$\frac{1}{D} \int\limits {1} \, dx= \frac{1}{D} x$

again integration $\frac{1}{D} x = \frac{x^2}{2!}$

The general solution is $y = y_{C} +y_{P}$

$y= (C_{1}+C_{1}x) e^0x+(C_{3}+C_{4}x) e^x +\frac{1}{2} (e^x(x^2-2x+2)-e^x(2(x-1)+e^x(2))$

+ $\frac{x^2}{2!}$

3 0

2 years ago

Does 12cm,35cm,37cm equal a right triangle

velikii [3]

Start off by using the Pythagorean Theorem: a^2 + b^2 = c^2

12^2 + 35^2 = 37^2
144 + 1,225 = 1,369
1,369 = 1,369

If the left side equals the right side than it is a right triangle.

Your answer is: Yes

Have an amazing day and stay hopeful!

4 0

2 years ago

QUICK!! TEN POINTS!! BRAINLIEST FOR WHOEVER GETS IT RIGHT!!

lara [203]

Answer:

(-2, -4.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Mark spends a total of $68.82 for 2 pairs of sneakers with the same cost. The sales tax is $5.32. Mark also uses a coupon for $3

shutvik [7]

Each pair of sneakers cost $33.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Total spent by Mark = $68.82

Sales tax = $5.32

Coupon used = $3.00

Price without sales tax = Total spent - sales tax

Price without sales tax = 68.82 - 5.32 = $63.50

As Mark used coupon, we will add this amount.

Amount of sneakers = Price without sales tax + Coupon used

Amount of sneakers = 63.50+3.00 = $66.50

As this is price of two sneakers, we will divide it by 2;

Cost of one sneaker = $\frac{66.50}{2}=\$33.25$

Each pair of sneakers cost $33.25

Keywords: subtraction, addition

Learn more about addition at:

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0

2 years ago