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yan [13]
4 years ago
11

How do you simplify? -3+(-1)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Maurinko [17]4 years ago
3 0

if you add 2 negatives together you get a smaller number,(farther away from zero) therefore, -3+(-1)= -4

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12=-1-9y. what's y ​
elena55 [62]
Add 1 to both sides
13=-9y
13/-9 = -1.4 repeated or -1 4/9
6 0
3 years ago
Help! And plz do explain...
Nat2105 [25]
1 mile is 5280 feet, therefore, we have 60 miles, and each mile is 5280 feet, so we multiply 5280 and 60, you get the answer of 316,800 feet.
6 0
3 years ago
Please help!!! Step by step please and thank you.​
Alchen [17]

Answer:

I will answer tomorrow, I promise. Need to sleep atm

6 0
3 years ago
Kamila has a rectangular lawn that measures 80 by 150 feet. She wants to lay gravel made from colored rock in a border, 6 feet w
beks73 [17]
A) Diagram

Below is a sketch of the recctangular lawn (the inside rectangle) and the gravel border.


  6 ft + 150 yards + 6 ft
-------------------------------
|                                    |
|     ---------------------      |
|     |                        |     |
|     |                        |     |   6 ft + 80 yard + 6 ft
|     |                        |     |
|      ---------------------     |
|                                    |
|------------------------------|

B) How many square feet of the gravel will surround the lawn?

Conversion: 1 yard = 3 feet

=> 80 yard = 80*3 feet = 240 feet

=> 150 yard = 150 * 3 feet = 450 feet

Area of the external rectangle = (6 ft + 240 ft + 6 ft) (6 ft + 450 ft + 6 ft) = 252 ft * 462 ft = 116,424 ft^2

Area of the internal rectangle = 240 ft * 450 ft = 108,000 ft^2

Area of the gravel border = 116,424 ft^2 - 108,000 ft^2 = 8424 ft^2

answer: 8424 ft^2

C) volume

volume = area of the base * depth

2 inches = 2/12 ft = 1/6 ft

=> volume = 8424 ft^2 * 1/6 ft = 1404 ft^3

answer: 1404 ft^3

C) cost

1 yard^3 = $ 30

1yard ^3 = (3 feet)^3 = 27 ft^3

=> cost = $ 30 / 27 ft^3

=> 1404 ft^3 * $30 / 27 ft^3 = $ 1560

answer: $ 1560
7 0
4 years ago
A women gives birth to 4 babies in her lifetime. What is the probability that she has first 3 boys and then one girl? Please hel
german

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 50% chance of it being a boy or a girl also known as 1/2

So the first baby has a 1/2 chance, same for the second, and third, Which means that there is a 1/2, then another 1/2 and another 1/2. So you would have to multiply them all, 1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/8. For the girl, again, it is 1/2 chance of being a girl, while the other 1/2 is a boy. So 1/8*1/2 is 1/16. So the probability so the women having 3 boys then a girl, is 1/16.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
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