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Mrac [35]
2 years ago
6

Simplify the expression so there is only one positive power for each base. ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
katen-ka-za [31]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option (A)

Step-by-step explanation:

The given expression is,

(5^{-2}\times 4^{-4})^{-2}

Since x^{-1}=\frac{1}{x} and \frac{1}{x^{-1}}=x

5^{2}=\frac{1}{5^{-2}}

4^{2}=\frac{1}{4^{-2}}

Therefore, (5^{-2}\times 4^{-4})^{-2}=\frac{1}{(5^{-2}\times 4^{-4})^{2}}

                                         =\frac{1}{(5^{-2})^2\times (4^{-4})^2}

                                         =\frac{1}{5^{-4}\times 4^{-8}}

                                         =\frac{1}{5^{-4}}\times \frac{1}{4^{-8}}

                                         =5^{4}\times 4^{8}                            

Option (A) will be the answer.                                          

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Step-by-step explanation:

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The hole will occur where x-2 =0

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If we could cancel the x-2 values from the top and bottom, we are left with

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8 0
3 years ago
1. If m&lt; 1 = 7x + 6 and m2 2 = 8x – 6, find the value of x so that p is<br> perpendicular to q.
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

  1. put them equal to each other
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Step-by-step explanation:

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