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3 years ago

What are loans to a company or government for a set amount of.time. they earn interest and are considered low-risk investments.

Business

1 answer:

irga5000 [103]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

b) bonds

Explanation:

Bonds are investment assets. Investors lend money to the government and corporates over a fixed period. In return, the company or the government pays a fixed amount of interest periodically until the agreed fixed period is over( maturity date). At maturity, the investor receives back the full amount he had loaned out (the principal amount).

Bonds are considered a low-risk investment option. Governments hardly default on their bond obligations. Companies that issue bonds to the public regulated and are less likely to default on payments.

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Mara is a management consultant for a soda manufacturer that wants to expand into health drinks such as green tea and after-work

mezya [45]

Answer: To carefully consider choices over the period of time before jumping onto any conclusion and making a decision.

Explanation:

Here, in this particular case Mara should carefully take into consideration the choices provided before straightaway jumping onto a conclusion and thus finalizing about it.

Instead of taking choices of the organization as the discrete event. i.e. pondering onto it as a yes/no decision, Mara should take into consideration that the choices made by the organization tends to constitute the strategic method which unveils over a period of time.

5 0

4 years ago

Phillip deposited $7,775 into a savings account 14 years ago. the account has an interest rate of 4.5% and the balance is curren

Bas_tet [7]

The future amount of an investment with compound interest can be calculated through the equation,

F = P x (1 + ieff)^n

where F is the future amount, P is the current value of the money, ieff is the effective interest (rate per year), and n is the number of years.

From the equation, all are given except for the effective interest, i. Now, substituting the known values,
14,398.87 = (7,775) x (1 + ieff)^14

The value of ieff from the equation is 0.044999.

Since the value of the ieff when translated to percentage is equal to 4.5% as well, the interest rate is compounded yearly.

3 0

3 years ago

Phân biệt triết lý bán hàng và triết lý Marketing

Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

I don't understand the language

5 0

3 years ago

What is the future value of this investment at the end of year five if 5.34 percent per year is the appropriate interest (discou

leva [86]

According to Formula:- AFV=PV(1+i)

<h3>How do you calculate the future value of an investment?</h3><h3>The future value formula</h3>

future value = present value x (1+ interest rate)n Condensed into math lingo, the formula looks like this:

FV=PV(1+i)n In this formula, the superscript n refers to the number of interest-compounding periods that will occur during the time period you're calculating for.

FV = $1,000 x (1 + 0.1)5

<h3>What will the future value be at the year's end?</h3>

If the proper interest (discount) rate is 5.34 percent annually, what will the investment be worth at the end of year five?

The present value ($100) plus the value of the interest at the set interest rate (5% of $100, or $5) equal the future value (FV) at the end of a year.

<h3>How is future value compounded annually determined?</h3>

The number of compound periods is exponentiated in formula 9.3, FV=PV(1+i)N. Over the course of five years, the 8% compounded monthly investment generates 60 periods of compound interest, whereas the 8% compounded annual investment generates only five periods.

<h3>How are present and future values determined?</h3>

Main Points

PV = FV/(1 + I n, where PV = present value, FV = future value, I = decimalized interest rate, and n = number of periods, is the formula for calculating present value.

The formula for future value is FV = PV (1 + i)n.

To Know more about future value (FV)

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7 0

2 years ago

India specializes in business process outsourcing and does this more efficiently than any other country. It buys agricultural co

uysha [10]

Answer:

Ricardo’s Theory of Comparative Advantage

Explanation:

Comparative advantage is the term used to define the ability of an individual, firm or country to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than that if it’s competitors or trade partners. Opportunity cost is the benefit lost from the second best alternative.

When a country can produce a product more efficiently (i.e maximum output using minimum resources) than that of its trade partners, it is known as that it has absolute advantage in that product. India tends to have absolute advantage in both business processes outsourcing as well as producing agricultural commodities as it is mentioned that it can produce both of these more efficiently than the United States.

However, although it has absolute advantage in both, it is still less efficient in producing agricultural commodities when compared to business process outsourcing. In other words, if it attempts to produce agricultural commodities in-house, the benefit lost from the second best alternative: business process outsourcing is high. The opportunity cost is higher when it produces agricultural commodities than it is when it does business process outsourcing. Hence, due to the law of comparative advantage, it chooses to specialize in business process outsourcing and imports agricultural commodities.

5 0

3 years ago