The best way to put them into a number line is to make sure that they've all got the same denominator, which in this case, will be 24, as this is the lowest common multiple of 3,4 and 8. You will then need to multiply these fractions accordingly. The first one (1/4) will need to be multiplied by 6 to get a denominator of 24, so this will then give you a result of 6/24. The second one (2/3), will need to be multiplied by 8, which will then give you a result of 16/24. The third one (3/4)will also need to be multiplied by 6, giving you 18/24. The final one (6/8) will need to be multiplied by 3, giving you 18/24. You will then need to put these in order, which will be- 1/4, 2/3, 3/4, and 6/8.
The alternative method is to turn these into decimals- 1/4 is equivalent to 25%, which is equal to 0.25. 2/3 is equivalent to 66.66%, which is equivalent to 0.66. 3/4 is equivalent to 75%, which is equal to 0.75. 6/8 is also equivalent to 75%, which is equal to 0.75, you can then easily line them up this way.
Hope this has been able to help you
Two figures are congruent if and only if there exists one or more rigid motions which will map one figure onto the other.
1. Triangles ABC and MNP are not congruent.
2. Triangles ABC and EFG are not congruent
3. Triangles ABC and STU are congruent.
4. Triangles EFG and MNP are congruent.
5. Triangles EFG and STU are not congruent.
6. Triangles STU and MNP are not congruent.
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables 
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that 
We need to proof that 
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:
The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:
And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor 
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that
Answer:
$89.1
Step-by-step explanation:
13.5 % of $660
= 13.5/ 100 × 660
= 0.135 × 660
= 89.1
hence, $ 89.1
Answer:
a. area=452.16 sq m
circumference=75.16m
b. area
c. circumference
Step-by-step explanation:
