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miskamm [114]
3 years ago
14

if the HCF of 408 and 1032 is expressible in the form of 1032 into 2 + 408 into P then find the value of p​

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexandr1967 [171]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

below.

Step-by-step explanation:

408 = 2*2*2*3*17

1032 = 2*2*2*3*43

So the HCF is 2*2*2*3 = 24

24 = 2/1032 + p/408

24 - 2/1032 = p/408

p = (24 - 2/1032) * 408

p = 9791.21 to nearest hundredth.

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Given the first term and the term-to-term rule, write down the first six terms of each sequence.
spin [16.1K]

Step-by-step explanation:

a1 = 2

a2 = a1 + 9 = 2 + 9 = 11

a3 = a2 + 9 = 20

a4 = a3 + 9 = 29

a5 = a4 + 9 = 38

a6 = a5 + 9 = 47

8 0
1 year ago
2m = 8 is m = 6. Describe Jason’s error, and give the correct solution.
mariarad [96]

Answer:

BAHO PEPE

Step-by-step explanation:

I HOPE THIS HELP

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
nhà bác hà được 240kg gạo nếp và gạo tẻ. biết số gạo nếp nhiều hoen số gạo tẻ là 20kg. hỏi nhà bác Hà thu được bao nhiêu kí gạo
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

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4 0
3 years ago
Find the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%. rou
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

<u> The probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%, is:</u>

<u>31.3% (Rounding to the nearest tenth)</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, P = 0.5, n = 6 and k = 3, we can build the binomial distribution table, this way:

Binomial distribution (n=6, p=0.5)

 f(x) F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0156 0.0156

1 0.0938 0.1094  

2 0.2344 0.3438

3 0.3125 0.6563  

4 0.2344 0.8906  

5 0.0938 0.9844  

6 0.0156 1.0000

Under the first column we have the probabilities of success of every value from 0 to 6, and under the second column we have the values for answering the question at least how much probability we have of any number of successes. Our question is exactly 3 successes in 6 trials and we see that value under the first column: 0.3125.

Therefore, the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%, is:

<u>31.3% (Rounding to the nearest tenth)</u>

Let's recall that the formula for calculating the probability of exact successes is:

P(k out of n) =   (n!/k!(n-k)!) * (p∧k*(1-p)∧(n-k))

in our case p=0.5, n=6, k=3

(n!/k!(n-k)!) = 20 and (p∧k*(1-p)∧(n-k)) = 0.015625

20 * 0.015625 = 0.3125

5 0
3 years ago
Ppl keep putting links for the answer i just need it typed
fenix001 [56]

Answer:

because, there is the end. that will create an extra log peice.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps.

3 0
3 years ago
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