Step-by-step explanation:
p=1/d
6=k/9
6×9=k
54=k
2=54/d
2×d=54
d=54/2
d=27
MARK ME BRAINLIEST!!
Cards are drawn, one at a time, from a standard deck; each card is replaced before the next one is drawn. Let X be the number of draws necessary to get an ace. Find E(X) is given in the following way
Step-by-step explanation:
- From a standard deck of cards, one card is drawn. What is the probability that the card is black and a
jack? P(Black and Jack) P(Black) = 26/52 or ½ , P(Jack) is 4/52 or 1/13 so P(Black and Jack) = ½ * 1/13 = 1/26
- A standard deck of cards is shuffled and one card is drawn. Find the probability that the card is a queen
or an ace.
P(Q or A) = P(Q) = 4/52 or 1/13 + P(A) = 4/52 or 1/13 = 1/13 + 1/13 = 2/13
- WITHOUT REPLACEMENT: If you draw two cards from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that they will both be aces?
P(AA) = (4/52)(3/51) = 1/221.
- WITHOUT REPLACEMENT: What is the probability that the second card will be an ace if the first card is a king?
P(A|K) = 4/51 since there are four aces in the deck but only 51 cards left after the king has been removed.
- WITH REPLACEMENT: Find the probability of drawing three queens in a row, with replacement. We pick a card, write down what it is, then put it back in the deck and draw again. To find the P(QQQ), we find the
probability of drawing the first queen which is 4/52.
- The probability of drawing the second queen is also 4/52 and the third is 4/52.
- We multiply these three individual probabilities together to get P(QQQ) =
- P(Q)P(Q)P(Q) = (4/52)(4/52)(4/52) = .00004 which is very small but not impossible.
- Probability of getting a royal flush = P(10 and Jack and Queen and King and Ace of the same suit)
If
is a number that is both divisible by 4 and 5, then

4 and 5 are coprime, so we can use the Chinese remainder theorem to solve this system and find that
is a solution to the system, where
is any integer. Simply put, any multiple of 20 fits the bill.
Now, there are 11 numbers between 100 and 300 that are divisible by 20 (100, 120, 140, and so on). We have
when
, so the sum we want to compute is

Answer:
im pretty sure it's $19.80
Step-by-step explanation:
(44 x 55)/100 = $24.20
44 - 24.20 = $19.80
1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+3+9
= 20
Largest number used is 9
Must click thanks and mark brainliest