Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
a) P(−1.36 ≤ z ≤ 1.38)
For z = - 1.36,
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution table is 0.08691
For z = 1.38
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution table is 0.9162
Therefore,
P(−1.36 ≤ z ≤ 1.38)
= 0.9162 - 0.08691 = 0.82929
b) P(−2.27 ≤ z ≤ 1.64)
For z = - 2.27
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution table is
0.0116
For z = 1.64,
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution table is
0.9495
Therefore,
P(−2.27 ≤ z ≤ 1.64)
= 0.9495 - 0.0116 = 0.9379
c) P(z ≤ 1.33)
For z = 1.33
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution is 0.9082
Therefore,
P(z ≤ 1.33) = 0.9082
d) P(z > −0.68) = 1 - P(z ≤ −0.68)
For z = - 0.68
The corresponding probability from the normal distribution is 0.2482
Therefore,
P(z > −0.68) = 1 - 0.2482 = 0.7518
Answer:
I think its 2/9 but im not sure worth a try doe
Answer:
Solve by moving 60 to the right. Then factor to get x=-10 or 6.
Answer:
more, less
Step-by-step explanation:
Beta is a measure of volatility. It is used in calculating the cost of equity using the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model formula).
A beta greater than 1 signifies that the returns from an investment is expected to be higher than the returns from the general market as the risk inherent in that investment is higher.
Similar to the economic concepts of elasticity, a change in one variable (in this case, beta of the stock) setting about a greater than proportionate change in another variable (returns from the stock).
Thus, a stock with beta of less than 1, will be less volatile than the market.
I hope this helps you understand the concept better.
Answer:
D. name an angle
Step-by-step explanation:
