A job shadow usually lasts one day, but there are cases when they could last several days to give you a more in-depth look at a certain career or company.
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Explanation:
let Z be the annual minimum cash flow
The internal rate of approach can be used here, in other words, the rate of return at which capital outlay of $2000 is equal present values of future cash flows
In year 1, present value of cash =X/discount factor
year 1 PV=Z/(1+i)^1
year 2 PV=Z/(1+i)^2
year 3=Z/(1+i)^3
Hence,
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Solving for Z above would give the minimum annual cash flow that must be generated for the computer to worth the purchase
Assuming i, interest rate on financing is 12%=0.12
Z can be computed thus:
$2000=Z(1/(1+0.12)^1+(1/(1+0.12)^2+(1+0.12)^3)
$2000=Z*3.09497902
Z=$2000/3.09497902
Z=$646.21
Answer:
1. Allocation Base
Definition: A measure that causes or influences the incurrence of a cost.
2. Direct Labor Time
Definition: A source document that shows how a worker spent time each week.
3. Ticket Indirect Costs
Definition: Costs not easily traceable to producing a product, job or service.
4. Job Coat Shoot
Definition: A detailed record of costs incurred to complete a specific job.
5. Job Order Costing
Definition: An accounting system used by companies that offer customized or unique products or services.
6. Materials Requisition Form
Definition: A form that lists the quantity of direct materials to be used in a job.
7. Overapplied Overhead
Definition: The amount of actual overhead is less than the applied overhead.
8. Underapplied Overhead
Definition: The amount of actual overhead is greater than the applied overhead.
9. Predetermined Overhead
Definition: Estimated manufacturing overhead divided by estimated cost driver.
10. Rate Process Costing
Definition: An accounting system used by companies to make standardized or homogeneous products or services.
