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bazaltina [42]
3 years ago
7

Muckenthaler Company sells product 2005WSC for $30 per unit. The cost of one unit of 2005WSC is $27, and the replacement cost is

$26. The estimated cost to dispose of a unit is $3, and the normal profit is 40% of selling price. At what amount per unit should product 2005WSC be reported, applying lower-of-cost-or-market
Business
1 answer:
valentina_108 [34]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The product 2005WSC should be reported at $26 per unit.

Explanation:

The lower-of-cost-or-market (LCM) method is a method of recording the inventory of a company which requires that the inventory cost of the company must recorded at whichever is lower between the inventory's original cost or current market price.

Applying lower-of-cost-or-market, the amount per unit at whcih product 2005WSC should be reported can be determined as follows:

Net realizable value (NRV) = Selling price per unit - Cost of disposal per unit = $30 - $3 = $27

Replacement cost (RC) = $26

NRV - Profit Margin = $27 - ($30 * 40%) = $15

Cost per unit = $27

Note that the market is the middle value of Net realizable value (NRV), $27; Replacement cost (RC), $26; and "NRV - Profit Margin", $15. Since the Replacement cost (RC) of $26 is the middle value, that the market value.

Since the market value of $26 per unit is lower than Cost per unit of $27,  by applying lower-of-cost-or-market, the product 2005WSC should be reported at $26 per unit.

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The expected returns for Stocks A, B, C, D, and E are 7 percent, 10 percent, 12 percent, 25 percent, and 18 percent, respectivel
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

The securities should a risk-averse investor purchase if the investment will be held in isolation is A because It has the lowest coefficient of variation.

Explanation:

We use the co-efficient of variation to calculate the risk level of the given stocks. The coefficient of variation is the measurement of risk of return.  

                                     A         B           C            D           E

Expected Returns        7%       10%       12%       25%       18%

Standard Deviation     2%        18%       15%       23%       15%

Use Following Formula to Calculate  coefficient of variation.

Coefficient of variation = ( Volatility / Expected Return ) x 100

As Standard Deviation represent the volatility.

Coefficient of variation = ( Standard Deviation / Expected Return ) x 100

A. Coefficient of variation = ( 2% / 7%) x 100 = 28.57%

B. Coefficient of variation = ( 18% / 10%) x 100 = 180%

C. Coefficient of variation = ( 15% / 12%) x 100 = 125%

D. Coefficient of variation = ( 23% / 25%) x 100 = 92%

E. Coefficient of variation = ( 15% / 18%) x 100 = 83.33%

6 0
3 years ago
Dealer and customer rebates have nothing to do with a dealer's ability to negotiate. true false
wolverine [178]
I think the correct answer is false. <span>Dealer and customer rebates do have something to do with a dealer's ability to negotiate. These rebates are affected by how these dealers to talk and negotiate on things. Hope this answers the question. Have a nice day.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Harwood Company uses a job-order costing system that applies overhead cost to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. The company's
Damm [24]

Answer:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base (machine hours)

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The company's predetermined overhead rate of $2.40 per machine-hour was based on a cost formula that estimates $192,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 80,000 machine-hours.

To allocated overhead costs to a specific job, you need to multiply the estimated rate for the number of machine-hours required for the job.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base (machine hours)

5 0
3 years ago
Celeste is working with a Ford Motor Company, one of her clients to negotiate the use of Ford trucks in an upcoming country musi
Oksanka [162]

Complete Question:

Celeste is working with a Ford Motor Company, one of her clients to negotiate the use of Ford trucks in an upcoming country music video. This type of paid, nonpersonal communication is known as?

Group of answer choices

A. direct marketing.

B. personal selling.

C. advertising

D. public relations.

Answer:

C. Advertising.

Explanation:

In this scenario, Celeste is working with a Ford Motor Company, one of her clients to negotiate the use of Ford trucks in an upcoming country music video. This type of paid, non-personal communication is known as advertising.

Advertising can be defined as a marketing strategy, which involves paying for a space in order to promote or boost the acceptance of goods and services. This ultimately implies that, advertising is a marketing technique which is being used by service providers or manufacturers in attempt to convince or influence the buying behavior of various customers through the use of persuasive messages.

8 0
3 years ago
Ayayai Company issued $612,000 of 10%, 20-year bonds on January 1, 2017, at 102. Interest is payable semiannually on July 1 and
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

(a)The issuance of the bonds.

January 1, 2017, bonds are issued

Dr Cash 624,260

    Cr Bonds payable 612,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 12,260

(b)The payment of interest and related amortization on July 1, 2017.

July 1, 2017, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 30,497

Dr Premium on bonds payable 103

    Cr cash 30,600

(c)The accrual of interest and the related amortization on December 31, 2017.

December 31, 2017, accrued interest

Dr Interest expense 30,492

Dr Premium on bonds payable 108

    Cr Interest payable 30,600

Explanation:

We must first determine the market price of the bonds:

PV of face value = $612,000 / (1 + 4.88525%)⁴⁰ = $90,818.5814

PV of coupons = $30,600 x 17.43274 (PV annuity factor, 4.88525%, 40 periods) = $533,441.844

market price = $90,818.5814 + $533,441.844 = $624,260

amortization for first coupon payment:

= ($624,260 x 4.88525%) - ($612,000 x 5%) = $30,496.68194 - $30,600 = $103.31806

amortization for second coupon payment:

= ($624,156.6819 x 4.88525%) - ($612,000 x 5%) = $30,491.6143 - $30,600 = $108.3856955

6 0
3 years ago
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