If 3.14 is rational, why should pi also be rational ?
The answer to your question is: Because pi is not 3.14 .
Answer:
Inequality Form:
x<4
1<4
3<4
-1004<4
Interval Notation:
(−∞,4)
(-1004,4)
(3,4)
(1,4)
Step-by-step explanation:
The mode is the number that occurs the most so if you look at the numbers, thee only one that occurs twice is 5 so 5 is the mode.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Find the slope, denoted m
This is done by using the formula m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)
The slope for this problem is
m = [-3 - (-1)]/[8 - (-2)]
m = -2/10 = -1/5
If <em>x</em> = -1, you have
2(-1) + 3 cos(-1) + <em>e</em> ⁻¹ ≈ -0.0112136 < 0
and if <em>x</em> = 0, you have
2(0) + 3 cos(0) + <em>e</em> ⁰ = 4 > 0
The function <em>f(x)</em> = 2<em>x</em> + 3 cos(<em>x</em>) + <em>eˣ</em> is continuous over the real numbers, so the intermediate value theorem applies, and it says that there is some -1 < <em>c</em> < 0 such that <em>f(c)</em> = 0.