Answer:
(a) Journalize the payment of the bond interest on January 1, 2022.
Dr Interest payable - bonds payable 40,400
Cr Cash 40,400
The interest expense on the bonds payable should have been accrued on the 2021 balance sheet, that is why we debit interest payable and not interest expense.
(b) Assume that on January 1, 2022, after paying interest, Blossom calls bonds having a face value of $100,000. The call price is 103. Record the redemption of the bonds.
Dr Bonds payable 100,000
Dr Call premium 3,000
Cr Cash 103,000
(c) Prepare the adjusting entry on December 31, 2022, to accrue the interest on the remaining bonds.
interest expense = $405,000 x 8% = $32,400
Dr Interest expense - bonds payable 32,400
Cr Interest payable - bonds payable 32,400
Answer:
Controllable margin= $300,000
Controllable margin in %= 33.3%
Explanation:
Controllable margin is sales revenue less controllable variable costs and fixed cost.
Controllable margin= Sales revenue - controllable variable cost - controllable fixed costs
Controllable margin= contribution margin - fixed costs
= 500,000 - 200,000= 300,000
Controllable margin in %= 300,000/900,000 × 100 =33.3%
Controllable margin in %= 33.3
Answer:
The Journal entry that Oriole Company will make to pay off the note and interest at maturity assuming that interest has been accrued to September 30 will be:
Dr Notes Payable 560,000
Dr Interest Payable 25,200
(560,000*6%*9/12)
Cr Cash 585,200
(560,000+25,200)
Explanation:
Based on the information given where Moss County Bank agrees to lend the Oriole Company $560000 on January 1 this means we have to Debit Note payable with 560,000 and since Oriole Company signs a $560000, 6%, 9-month this means we have to Debit Interest payable with 25,200 (560,000*6%*9/12) and Credit Cash with 585,200 (560,000+25,200).
Answer:
The answer is:
Asset will be overstated
Net income will be overstated
Explanation:
Because of the incorrect capitalization(the process of converting or adding to a firm's asset):
1. Assets are overstated. Assets that shouldn't are added to the entire assets are added. So it's increasing the company's asset whereas it's not.
2. Net income are overstated. Because depreciation too will have to be charged for the asset that wasn't there, therefore, net asset will be overstated.
Answer:
a. What is the pretax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
b. What is the aftertax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Explanation:
we must first determine the bond's yield to maturity:
YTM = {coupon + [(face value - market value)/n]} / [(face value + market value)/2] = {30 + [(1,000 - 930)/60]} / [(1,000 + 930)/2] = 31.17 / 965 = 3.23% x 2 = 6.46%
after tax cost of debt = 6.46% x (1 - tax rate) = 6.46% x (1 - 22%) = 6.46% x 78% = 5.04%
