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Ksivusya [100]
3 years ago
11

A software development project at day 70 exhibits an actual cost of $78,000 and a scheduled cost of $84,000. The software manage

r estimates a value completed of $81,000. What are the cost and schedule variances and CSI? Estimate the time variance.
Business
1 answer:
Rina8888 [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer and Explanation:

Given:

Actual time (AT) = 70 days

Actual cost (AC) = $78,000

Scheduled cost (SC) = $84,000

Earned value (EV) = $81,000

Computation of cost variance:

Cost variance = Earned value - Actual cost

Cost variance = $81,000 - $78,000

Cost variance = $3,000

Computation of schedule variance:

Schedule variance = Earned value - Scheduled cost

Schedule variance = $81,000 - $84,000

Schedule variance = - $3,000

Computation of Cost schedule Index (CSI):

Cost schedule Index = EV² / (AC × SC)

Cost schedule Index = ($81,000)² / ($78,000 × $84,000)

Cost schedule Index = 1.00137363

Cost schedule Index = 1.001 (Approx)

Computation of time variance:

Time variance = (AT × CSI) - AT

Time variance = (70 × 1.001) - 70

Time variance = (70.07) - 70

Time variance = 0.07 days

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uppose McKnight ​Corp.'s breakeven point is revenues of $ 1 comma 100 comma 000. Fixed costs are $ 660 comma 000. Requirements 1
ioda

Answer:

1. Compute the contribution margin percentage.

  • 40%

2. Compute the selling price if variable costs are ​$16 per unit.

  • $26.67

3. Suppose 65 comma 000 units are sold. Compute the margin of safety in units and dollars.

  • margin of safety in $ = $633,550
  • margin of safety in % = 36.55%

4. What does this tell you about the risk of McKnight making a​ loss? What are the most likely reasons for this risk to​ increase?

  • Since the contribution margin is relatively high, this means that the production costs are relatively low (compared to selling price). The associated risks may come from high leverage, e.g. machinery purchased on credit that results in high interest expense. For the most part, having a high contribution margin is generally very good, just ask Apple.

Explanation:

break even point is $ = $1,100,000 (= break even point units x selling price)

fixed costs = $660,000

contribution margin % = (total sales - total variable costs) / total sales

total variable costs = $1,100,000 - $660,000 = $440,000

contribution margin % =  ($1,100,000 - $660,000) / $1,100,000 = 40%

variable costs = $16 per unit

0.4 = (x - $16) / x

0.4x = x - $16

$16 = 0.6x

x = $26.67

65,000 x $26.67 = $1,733,550

margin of safety in $ = $1,733,550 - $1,100,000 = $633,550

margin of safety in % = $633,550 / $1,733,550 = 36.55%

4 0
3 years ago
Most insurance companies will waive surrender charges in the event EXCEPT:
xxMikexx [17]

Answer:

Most insurance companies will waive surrender charges in the event except the person who fake the injury or death

4 0
2 years ago
A U.S. firm buys merchandise today to a Japanese company for ¥100,000,000. The current exchange rate is ¥110.58/$, the account i
-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

d. transaction loss; $3,695

Explanation:

Calculations:

Today  ¥110.58 can be exchanged by $1

<h3>US firm to pay today = 100,000,000/110.58 = 904322.66</h3>

US firm had to pay $904322.66 today.

US firm chooses to pay three months after the transaction and do not uses any hedging technique.

Three months later on settlement date  ¥110.13 can be exchanged by $1, so less  ¥ can be exchanged now than three months ago ( ¥110.58). Now US firm would incur transaction loss. Translation loss/gain occurs when balance sheet of a firm is converted from one currency to another.

<h3>US firm to pay 3 months later = 100000000/110.13 = 908017.79</h3>

US firm to pay $904322.66 three months later

<h3>Transaction gain/loss = $904322.66 - $908017.79 = -$3695.13 </h3>

So US firm incurs loss of $3695.13, rounded off to $3695

6 0
3 years ago
A five-year bond has a par value of 1000, a coupon of 3%, and a required yield of 5%. What should be the market price of this bo
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

The market price of the bond is $913.41

Explanation:

The coupon payment is annual, meaning it is being paid once a year.

N(Number of years/Number of periods) = 5

I/Y(Yield-To-Maturity) = 5 percent

PMT(coupon payment) = $30 [(3/100) x $1,000]

FV(Future value/Par value) =$1,000

PV(present value or market value) = ?

Now to solve this, lets use a financial calculator (e.g Texas BA II plus)

N= 5; I/Y = 5%; PMT = $30; FV = $1,000; CPT PV = -$913.41

Therefore, the market price of the bond is $913.41

4 0
3 years ago
Todd Enterprises is preparing a cash budget for the second quarter of the coming year. The following data have been forecasted:
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

The answer is attached for ready reference

Explanation:

Please note no effect for depreciation is taken as it is non cash item.

The may ending balance is having a surplus of $103,300              

Download xlsx
8 0
4 years ago
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