Ralph is acculturating its new employees through assimiliation, it is a way of or a progress in absorbing ideas or information and to be able to understand them. It is seen in the scenario above of how Ralph encourages the new hires to learn the norms and values of the orgaization, in which they should learn and understand. This is the process of assimilation.
Answer:
Explanation:
(1)
FV = PV x (1 + r)^N
FV = $75,000
PV = $35,000
r = 8%
75,000 = 35,000 x (1.08)^N
(1.08)N = 2.1429
N ln 1.08 = ln 2.1429
N = ln 2.1429 / ln 1.08 = 0.33 / 0.033 = 10 years
(2)
FV = Annual payment, A x PVA
FV = $43,700
n = 6 years
A = 8,000
43,700 = 8,000 x PVA
PVA = 5.4625
PVIFA (6 years, r%) = 5.4172
r=3%.
(3)
PV = Annual payment, A x PVIFA (r%, n years)
PV = $18,000
n = 6 years
r = 9%
$18,000 = A x PVIFA (9%, 6 years) = A x 4.4859 [From PVIFA table]
A = $18,000 / 4.4859 = $4,012.57
Answer:
<u>The correct answer is that the cost of the ending inventory using the retail inventory method is US$ 100,962</u>
Explanation:
Wall-to-Wall Records
Cost Retail
Beginning Inventory $ 48,000 $ 70,000
Purchases $ 210,000 $ 390,000
Cost of Goods Available for Sale $ 258,000 $ 460,000
Cost to Retail Ratio
= $ 258,000 ÷ $ 460,000
= 0.5609 = 56.09%
Cost Retail
Cost of Goods Available for Sale $ 258,000 $ 460,000
− Sales $ 280,000
Ending Inventory $ 180,000
× Cost to Retail Ratio 0.5609
<u>Ending Inventory $ 100,962 </u>
Answer:
In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.
As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows
1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)
2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)
3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)
4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)
= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02
PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91
Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000
In a financial calculator put
PV= -766.91
N= 46
FV=1000
PMT= 32
and compute I
I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76
YTM= 0.0876
Explanation:
Answer:
Sorry cant help with this
Explanation:
