Answer:
The value of GDP is 75
Explanation:
GDP is equal to Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports (Exports minus Imports), where total Investment is equal to Fixed Investment plus the Change in Inventories.
The change in GDP will therefore equal the change in Consumption + the change in Investment + the change in Government Spending + the change in Net Exports, where the change in Investment will equal the change in Fixed Investment plus the change in the Change in Inventories.
= Government purchases of goods and services (10) + Consumption Expenditures (70
)+ Exports (5
) - Imports (12) + Change in Inventories (-7
) + Construction of new homes and apartments (15
) - Sales of existing homes and apartments (22
) + Government payments to retirees (17
) + Business Fixed Investment (9)
= 75
Answer:
Acquisition
Explanation:
Acquisition mode of entry is a type of foreign market entry mode that offers fast, large and international expansion into a new market. This is done by a firm gaining control of another firm through the purchase of stocks or exchange of stocks. This type of strategy is usually used by multinational companies to acquire greater market power. A disadvantage of this type of entry is the high cost and integration is difficult due to different organization cultures and relationships..
Answer:
<h2>C. Makes domestic consumer worse off. </h2>
Explanation:
A tariff is levied on the exports and imports between two countries. It is meant to regulate the foreign trade and encourage the domestic industries and safeguard them from the competition of foreign goods. Tariffs are source of income for states. Tariffs and import export quotas are most used instruments of protectionism. Tariffs are fixed or variable.
It can put the domestic consumer in an advantageous position as due to tariffs they would not be able to get less costly products.
Answer:
the present value is $4,316.35
Explanation:
The computation of the present value of given cash flows is shown below:
Present value is
= Cash flows at year 1 ÷ (1 + rate of interest) + Cash flows at year 2 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^2 + Cash flows at year 3 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^3 + Cash flows at year 4 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^4
= $880 ÷ 1.08 + $1,250 ÷ 1.08^2 + $1,510 ÷ 1.08^3 + $1,675 ÷ 1..08^4
= $4,316.35
Hence, the present value is $4,316.35
