B is the correct answer.
An unfavourable fixed overhead volume variance can be due to all of the following except an increase in utility costs.
<h3>
What is utility costs?</h3>
Utilities costs are the price associated with using services including electricity, water, waste removal, heating, and sewage. Throughout the reporting period, expenses are incurred, calculated, and accrued for, or payments are made. The term "Utility Costs" refers to all fees, surcharges, and other expenses related to providing any utilities that are necessary for the Premises, the Premises, or the Improvements, including, but not limited to, heating, ventilation, and air conditioning costs, costs associated with providing gas, electricity, and other fuels or power sources to the Premises, and costs associated with providing water and sewage services to the Premises.
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Answer: The correct answer is "the informal rules of the game".
Explanation: The given scenario illustrates <u>the informal rules of the game.</u>
<u>Because despite not being an official standard, it is an informal rule that the company tends to follow because it gives good results, and is backed by the organizational culture of the company.</u>
Answer:
$3,168
Explanation:
We will receive $4000 in future (after 4 years time) which means all we want to know is the amount that we Derek must deposit today.
This present value of the $4000 payment received after 4 years from today can be calculated using the following formula:
Present value = Future Value / (1 + r)^n
Here
Future Value is $4000
r is 6%
n is 4 years
So by putting values, we have:
Present value = $4000 / (1 + 6%)^4 Years
Present value = $3,168
Answer:
Amount of money invested is $2,000 and $4,000
Explanation:
In this question, we are asked to calculate how much was invested in two different accounts given the amount of money invested in both accounts.
Let the amount of money invested in both accounts be a and b respectively.
Mathematically;
A + B = 6000 ......I
Now we use the formula for simple interest to check the amount that is supposed to be made on Both accounts if he end of a year.
Formula for simple interest is I = PRT/100
Let’s apply this to what is on ground:
5*1* a/100 = 5a/100
Second is
9*b*1/100 = 9b/100
That is 5a + 9b = 38,000. ........ii
Solving Both simultaneously as follows:
Let A = 6000-b from 1
Substitute this into 2
5(6000-b) + 9b = 38,000
30,000 -5b + 9b = 38,000
4b = 8,000
b =$2000
This means a would be 6000 - 2,000 = $4000
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation:
Under this case the write off will be as follow:
Debit Credit
Allowance for doubtful accounts 25,200
Accounts receivables 25,200
Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.
