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eimsori [14]
3 years ago
7

A company makes a product that sells for $80 per unit. Variable expenses are $40.00 per unit, and fixed expenses total $200,000

per year. Its operating results for last year were as follows: Sales $ 2,080,000 Variable expenses 1,040,000 Contribution margin 1,040,000 Fixed expenses 200,000 Net operating income $ 840,000 The company president wants to add new features to the product, which will increase the variable expenses by $1.90 per unit. She thinks that the new features, combined with some increase in marketing spending, would increase this year's sales by 25%. How much could the president increase this year's fixed marketing expense and still earn the same $840,000 net operating income as last year
Business
1 answer:
Setler [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The president could increase this year's fixed marketing expense and still earn the same $840,000 net operating income as last year if the increase in fixed marketing expense does not exceed in total amount than $198,250.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Income Statement         Last Year's         This Year's

Sales                          $ 2,080,000        $2,600,000 ($2,080,000 x 1.25)

Variable expenses        1,040,000             1,361,750 (32,500 x $41.90)

Contribution margin     1,040,000          $1,238,250

Fixed expenses              200,000               398,250 ($198,250)

Net operating income $ 840,000            $840,000

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Suppose that the market demand curve for bean sprouts is given by P = 1,660 - 4Q, where P is the price and Q is total industry o
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

In equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option e= 300.  

Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Explanation:

Data Given:

Market Demand Curve = P = 1660-4Q

where, P = price and Q = total industry output

Each firm's marginal cost = $60 per unit of output

So, we know that Q =  q_{1} + q_{2}

where q_{} being the individual firm output.

Solution:

P = 1660-4Q

P = 1660- 4(q_{1} + q_{2})

P = 1660 - 4q_{1} - 4q_{2}

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by q_{1}

Let's suppose new equation is X

X =  1660q_{1} - 4q_{1} ^{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} - 60q_{1}

Taking the derivative w.r.t to q_{1}, we will get:

X^{'} = 1660 - 8q_{1} - 4q_{2} - 60 = 0

Making rearrangements into the equation:

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1660 - 60

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1600

Dividing the whole equation by 4

2q_{1} +q_{2} = 400

Solving for q_{1}

2q_{1} = 400 - q_{2}

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 q_{2}  

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by q_{2}

P = 1660 - 4q_{1} - 4q_{2}

Let's suppose new equation is Y

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Pugging in the value of q_{1}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{2}(200 - 0.5 q_{2}) -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 800q_{2} +2q_{2} ^{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1600q_{2} - 800q_{2} -2q_{2} ^{2}

Taking the derivative w.r.t q_{2}

Y^{'} = 1600 - 800 - 4q_{2} = 0

Solving for q_{2}

4q_{2} = 800

q_{2} = 200

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 q_{2}

Plugging in the value of q_{2} to get the value of q_{1}

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 (200)

q_{1} = 200 - 100

q_{1} = 100

Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Hence, in equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option

e= 300.

5 0
3 years ago
9 48. The stages of human development are: 1.Clear and distinct 2.Varied from person to person 3.Easily navigated 4.Only physica
Alchen [17]

Answer:

2. VARIED FROM PERSON TO PERSON

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
The rate established at the beginning of a period that uses estimated overhead and an allocation factor such as estimated direct
Bumek [7]

Answer:

Predetermined overhead rate

Explanation:

The predetermined overhead rate is the rate that is computed by taking the estimated manufacturing overhead and the same would be divided by allocation factor that could be estimated direct labor, estimated direct hours, etc in order to assign the overhead cost

So according to the given situation, the first option is correct i.e. predetermined overhead rate

5 0
3 years ago
Handy Man, Inc., has zero coupon bonds outstanding that mature in eight years. The bonds have a face value of $1,000 and a curre
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

5.657%

Explanation:

Data provided:

Face value = $1,000

Current market price = $640

Time of maturity, t = 8 year

Now,

the compounding formula is given as:

Face value = Current amount × (1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

where,

r is the rate i.e pretax rate of debt

n is the number of times the interest is compounded i.e for semiannual n = 2

thus, on substituting the values, we get

$ 1,000= $ 640 × (1+\frac{r}{2})^{2\times8}

or

1.5625 = (1+\frac{r}{2})^{16}

or

(1+\frac{r}{2}) = 1.0282

or

r = 0.05657

or

pretax cost of debt = 0.05657 × 100% = 5.657%

3 0
2 years ago
Stock R has a beta of 1.8, Stock S has a beta of 0.75, the expected rate of return on an average stock is 9%, and the risk-free
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Stock R more beta than Stock S = 4.2%

Explanation:

given data

Stock R beta = 1.8

Stock S beta = 0.75

expected rate of return = 9% = 0.09

risk-free rate = 5% = 0.05

solution

we get here Required Return

Required Return (Re) = risk-free rate + ( expected rate of return - risk-free rate ) beta  ...........1

Required Return (Re) = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) B

Required Return (Re) =

so here

Stock R = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) 1.8

Stock R = 0.122  = 12.2 %

and

Stock S = 0.05 + ( 0.09 - 0.05 ) 0.75

Stock S =  0.08 = 8%

so here more risky stock is R and here less risky stock is S

Stock R is more beta than the Stock S.

Stock R more beta Stock S =  12.2 % - 8%

Stock R more beta Stock S = 4.2%

4 0
3 years ago
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