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3 years ago

Can someone help me, please?Im just confused.

Mathematics

2 answers:

makkiz [27]3 years ago

5 0

I think you have to answer the equations on the fraction and keep it in fraction form. Then, you have to pick a answer. BUT I DONT KNOW THIS IS JUST A GUESS!!!

laila [671]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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Fiesta28 [93]

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3 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

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