1. square both sides, a straight forward method.
<span>2. hand plot </span>
<span>3. calculator plot, not recommended.Let Y=sin x + cos x -1 </span>
<span>Y=0, find x=? </span>
<span>4. Substitute 1=sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) on the right hand side </span>
<span>Y1=sin^2(x) - sin(x) </span>
<span>Y2=cos^2(x) - cos(x) </span>
<span>Y1 + Y2=0, Y1=0, Y2=0, </span>
<span>a(a-1)=0, so, a=0, a=1, where a=sin(x), or cos(x), </span>
<span>so x=0, pi/2 </span>
<span>Have a good day!</span>
I believe it is a numerical expression
Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
These fractions are equivalent because they can be divided by the same number... i think
Answer:
$40 and 10 x cents.
Step-by-step explanation:
$75.50 and 18 cents - $35.50 and 8 cents = $40.00 and 10 cents per mile. For x miles, we multiply $40.00 and 10 cents by x miles.
Also, we could convert dollars to cents by multiply it by 100 Since $1 =100 cents.
7568 - 3558 cents = 4010 cents. For x miles, 4010X cents.
Step-by-step explanation:
$75.50 and 18 cents - $35.50 and 8 cents = $40.00 and 10 cents per mile. For x miles, we multiply $40.00 and 10 cents by x miles.
Also, we could convert dollars to cents by multiply it by 100 Since $1 =100 cents.
7568 - 3558 cents = 4010 cents. For x miles, 4010X cents.
Answer:
12/20 21/35 30/50
Step-by-step explanation:
These are all equivalent fractions to 3/5.
Hope this helps!
