Answer:
920 (Unfavorable)
Explanation:
Labor rate variance = Actual direct labor hours (Actual direct labor rate - Standard direct labor rate)
Labor rate variance = 2,300 * ($21.7 - $21.3)
Labor rate variance = 2,300 * 0.4
Labor rate variance = 920 (Unfavorable)
Answer:
Following are the solution to these question:
Explanation:
In point a:
The population feels wealthier and seems to be socially secure. This will boost consumption, moving AD to the correct. There is a difference in deflation. Govt must adopt a discretionary monetary policy to fight deflation, that will change AD left.
In point b:
Expenditure has been decreased to increasing jobs or costs. Disinflationary distance exists. To improve DA (shift rectors) and restore full job production, Govt must pursue the expansionary monetary policy.
In point c:
It will once again raise NPA because part A contributes to even more competition with higher public expenditure. The deflation divide is that there is. That alternative is an expansionary tax reform to move to the left.
In point d:
The rise in interest rates declines expenditure and, as part B, reduces AD. The deflationary difference remains. Government must use expansionary monetary policy to fight it, moving AD to a correct.
Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
Answer:
A) Deciding where to locate a new manufacturing plant
Explanation:
Strategic planning is the process in which the company sets its goals for the future, and makes plans to achieve those goals.
Strategic planning is therefore, a process focused on the future, not on daily activities, and is usually the main job of the CEO.
Deciding where to locate a new manufacturing plant is an example of strategic planning because expanding manufacturing capacity is a form of planning growth for the future of the firm.
