Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
Answer:
e. Debit Retained earning $49,280 Credit Common stock dividend distributable $35,200
Credit Paid in capital in excess of par value(Common stock) $14,080
Explanation:
The journal entry is as follows:
Retained earnings (3,520 shares × $14)
Dr $49,280
_______ Common stock dividend distributable (3,520 shares × $10)
Cr $35,200
_______ Paid in capital in excess of par value ($49,280 - $35,200)
Cr $14,080
Answer:
scheduling technique
Explanation:
Project Evaluation Review Technique and Critical Path
Method (CPM) are scheduling techniques used to plan, schedule,
budget and control the many activities associated with projects.
Projects are usually very large, complex, custom products that
consist of many interrelated activities to be performed either
concurrently or sequentially.
With face value equal to $ 1000, present value equal to $ 1,065, we get nper = 16.5 * 2 = 33. Rate(ytm) is equal to 7.7%/2 = 3.85%.PMT (coupon payment) = $ 42.01.Coupon rate = (42.01 / 1000) = 4.20%.Therefore, the annual coupon rate is equal to 4.2 * 2 which equates to 8.40%
