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Misha Larkins [42]
3 years ago
8

Chris wanted to transform the graph of the parent function Y= cot (x) by horizontally compressing it so that it has a period of

2/π units, horizontally Terslating it π/4 units to the right, and vertically translating it 1 unit up. To do so, he graphed the function y= cot (2x-π/4)+1 as shown. What did he do wrong?​
Mathematics
2 answers:
Anastasy [175]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is C: He graphed the function y=cot(2x-pi/4)+1 correctly but it was not the right function to graph. He should have graphed y=cot(2x-pi/2)+1.

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason why it is C is because we want a period of pi/2, which would mean that b must be equal to 2 (if you use the period equation for tan and cot, pi/b, in order for pi/b to be equal to pi/2, b must be 2). The form for a trigonometric function is: y = acotb(x-h)+k. And if you notice, the equation he uses has the b already distributed inside the parenthesis, which means that both x and h were already multiplied. If we divide 2x and pi/4 by two, we get x, but h becomes pi/8, which is not equal to pi/4 as required by the problem. The correct equation would be: y = cot(2x-pi/2)+1 because when you divide out the two from inside the parenthesis, you get: y = cot2(x-pi/4)+1, which is the equation that he should've graphed.

I hope this helped you out!

If you have any further questions don't be afraid to ask.

pashok25 [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

He didn't calculate the b-value correctly.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given parent function is:

y =  \cot(x)

The transformation is of the form:

y =a  \cot(bx + c)  + d

The period is given by

\frac{\pi}{b}

If we want the new function to have a period of

\frac{2}{\pi}

Then we solve the following equation for b.

\frac{\pi}{b}  =  \frac{2}{\pi}

b =  \frac{ {\pi}^{2} }{2}

-  \frac{c}{b}

will translate the graph horizontally to the right by

\frac{c}{b}

units.

+d shifts the graph up by d units.

The new function then becomes:

y =  \cot(  \frac{ {\pi}^{2} }{2}  (x  -  \frac{\pi}{4} ) )+1

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Answer:

(2) 2,640 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

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35 is what percent of 150? Enter your answer in decimal form to the nearest hundreth.
Sophie [7]

Answer:

23.33%

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution for 35 is what percent of 150:

35: 150*100 =

(35*100): 150 =

3500: 150 = 23.33

Now we have: 35 is what percent of 150 = 23.33

Question: 35 is what percent of 150?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 150 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with x.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that 100%=150.

Step 4: In the same vein, x%=35.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

100%=150(1).

x%=35(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS

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Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

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