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wlad13 [49]
3 years ago
9

I don’t get how to solve this

Mathematics
1 answer:
Annette [7]3 years ago
3 0

<EFD is also shown as e on the diagram.  It is 90 degrees.  <EFG is made up of the same two lines and is equal to 90 degrees (shown by the little box) so <EFD must be equivalent.

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Let AA and BB be events such that P(A∩B)=1/73P(A∩B)=1/73, P(A~)=68/73P(A~)=68/73, P(B)=21/73P(B)=21/73. What is the probability
krok68 [10]

Answer:

P(A \cup B) = \frac{5}{73} +\frac{21}{73} -\frac{1}{73}=\frac{25}{73}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let A and B events. We have defined the probabilities for some events:

P(A') =\frac{68}{73} , P(B) =\frac{21}{73} , P(A \cap B) =\frac{1}{73}

Where A' represent the complement for the event A

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

So for this case we can solve for P(A) like this:

P(A) = 1-P(A') = 1-\frac{68}{73}=\frac{5}{73}

And now we can find P(A \cup B) using the total probability rul given by:

P(A \cup B) = P(A)+P(B) -P(A \cap B)

And if we replace the values given we got:

P(A \cup B) = \frac{5}{73} +\frac{21}{73} -\frac{1}{73}=\frac{25}{73}

And that would be the final answer.

5 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

and and here is your answer. you're welcome.

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7 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Theres no circle here.

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