Answer:
1779299.7m
Explanation:
From formulas in acoustic sound, we know that sound intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance away.
Thus;
I2/I1 = r2²/r 1²
So,
∆L = 10 log (I2/I1)
Where ∆L is the intensity of music and r1 and r2 are distances away.
∆L=10log 10(r1²/r2²)
∆L=10log 10(r1/r2)²
∆L= - 20log 10(r1/r2)
r2 = r1•10^(-∆L/20)
From the question,
∆L = 116 Db
r1 = 2.82m
Thus,
r2 = 2.82 x 10^(116/20)
r2 = 2.82 x 630957.34 = 1779299.7m
To solve this problem we will start by considering how to calculate the apparent weight. On the sphere this will then be given that the real weight is the sum of the apparent weight and the Buoyant Force. Therefore we will have to

Here
= True Weight
= Apparent Weight
= Buoyant Force
If we seek to find the apparent weight we will have to,


Remember that
V = Volume (Volume Sphere)
= Density (At this case water density)
g = Gravitational acceleration


Therefore the apparent weight will be 0.1526N
Question seems to be missing. Found it on google:
a) How long is the ski jumper airborne?
b) Where does the ski jumper land on the incline?
a) 4.15 s
We start by noticing that:
- The horizontal motion of the skier is a uniform motion, with constant velocity

and the distance covered along the horizontal direction in a time t is

- The vertical motion of the skier is a uniformly accelerated motion, with initial velocity
and constant acceleration
(where we take the downward direction as positive direction). Therefore, the vertical distance covered in a time t is

The time t at which the skier lands is the time at which the skier reaches the incline, whose slope is
below the horizontal
This happens when:

Substituting and solving for t, we find:

b) 143.6 m
Here we want to find the distance covered along the slope of the incline, so we need to find the horizontal and vertical components of the displacement first:


The distance covered along the slope is just the magnitude of the resultant displacement, so we can use Pythagorean's theorem:

Answer: mechanical efficieny.
Efficieny is also expressend as percent. The formula for mechanical efficiency as percent is the ratio work output to wor input times 100.
The ideal mechanical efficiency for a machine would be 1 or 100% which means that all the input work is converted into output work. But this is just an idealization as the friction and other losses of energy make it imposible to reach 100% efficiency in reality, so the mechanical efficiency of real machinces is less than 100% or 1.