Answer:
$22,640
The explanation is shown below:-
Explanation:
The computation of cash flow from operating activities using the direct method is shown below:-
Direct method
Pizza International, Inc.
Statement of cash inflow
Cash flow from operating expenses
Cash received from customers $143,777
($143,951 - $174)
Cash Paid
To suppliers ($53,773)
($45,700 - $651 + $8,724)
To salaries and wages ($56,855)
For office expenses ($7,730)
($7,785 + $668 - $723)
For income tax expenses ($2,779)
($50 + $2,729)
Net cash inflow from operating
activities $22,640
It is mainly due to no depreciation expenses for cash products. Depreciation expenses do not contribute to cash outflows. Because of which company has reported large cash inflow from operations compared to near net loss.
Answer:
Ending WIP= $13,500
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the factory overhead:</u>
Factory overhead= 25,000*0.75= $18,750
<u>Now, the ending WIP inventory:</u>
cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + allocated manufacturing overhead - Ending WIP
68,250 = 11,000 + 27,000 + 25,000 + 18,750 - Ending WIP
Ending WIP= $13,500
Answer:
The gain that Sheridan should recognize on this exchange is $135000
Explanation:
Where Exchange Transaction lacks commercial substance, the asset that is acquired is measured at the <em>Carrying Amount or Undepreciated Cost </em> of the asset given up.
The gain will then include an <em>further consideration acquired</em> on the exchange of an asset.
<u>Entries to record the exchange are as follows :</u>
Cash $135000 (debit)
New Asset at undepreciated cost $420300 (debit)
Cost of Old asset given up $420300 (credit)
Gain on exchange $135000 (credit)
Conclusion :
The gain that Sheridan should recognize on this exchange is $135000
Answer:
the investment's coefficient of variation is 1.25.
Explanation:
The coefficient of variation relates the units of return to the units of risk. It expresses the unit of risk per 1% of return as follows :
<em>Coefficient of Variation = Standard Deviation ÷ Return</em>
Therefore,
Coefficient of Variation = 10 ÷ 8
= 1.25
Answer:
$ 11,799 is the principal balance of the note payable.
Explanation:
The Interest expense for the installment note on the year of the December 31, year can be determined by the following equation that are mention below
Now the Principal balance of the component in $15,179 payment of the December 31, year 1 can be determined by the
=$ 11,799
