Answer:
The correct answer is False.
Explanation:
Net working capital, or "Working Capital" is simply the difference between current or current assets and current or short-term liabilities of a company.
Cash flow, on the other hand, is the net amount of cash and its equivalents that is transferred inside and outside the company and that may originate in operational, investment or financing activities.
Cash flow will have an operational origin, when there is a net decrease in working capital. In this situation there will be a net cash release that the company can use freely to honor debts, reinvest in operations, pay dividends, cover expenses or provide funds for future investments.
A negative cash flow, from the point of view of operations, implies that the company has increased its cash demands to finance sales on credit or inventory. That is, it has increased its investment in working capital. Situation that will require an analysis that allows a better way to manage capital.
Answer:
D. households demand goods and services that are supplied by firms, while supplying resources that are demanded by firms.
Explanation:
The circular flow of income shows how money moves in an economy. Firms pay households for resources needed in production. The money flows back to firms when households demands goods and services from firms.
I hope my answer helps you
quizlet calaf’s drillers erects and places into service an off-shore oil platform on january 1, 2021, at a cost of $10,000,000. calaf is legally required to dismantle and remove the platform at the end of its useful life in 10 years. calaf estimates it will cost $1,000,000 to dismantle and remove the platform at the end of its useful life in 10 years. (the fair value at january 1, 2021, of the dismantle and removal costs is $450,000.) prepare the entry to record the asset retirement obligation.
Oil Platform 450,000
Asset Retirement Obligation 450,000
What is asset retirement obligation?
An asset retirement obligation is a contractual requirement for the retirement of a tangible long-lived asset, the timing of which may depend on the occurrence of a future event outside the control of the entity bearing the obligation.
Therefore,
Oil Platform 450,000
Asset Retirement Obligation 450,000
To learn more about asset retirement obligation from the given link:
brainly.com/question/14298631
Answer:
The answer is letter A. TRUE
Explanation:
Because under IFRS firms tipically use the cost recovery method iif they conclude that the percentage of completion method is not appropriate to account for a long term contract.
Answer:
hiring higher-quality workers at a higher wage
Explanation:
Possible causes of unfavorable labor rate variances include:
An increase in pay for employees.
Working overtime hours paid at a premium above the basic rate.
Using direct labor employees who were more skilled and experienced than the ‘normal’ and who are paid more than the standard rate per hour (adverse rate variance).
Based on the above discussion, the answer is hiring higher-quality workers at a higher wage