Answer:
(a) $ 1200
(b) $ 702.5
Explanation:
In the demand and supply curve, the price of goods and services changes with respect to market conditions such as scarcity and consumers' needs. In the problem, if the producers charge about $497.50, the scalper will definitely charge a price higher than that of the producers, in this case, $1200. Thus, this is $702.5 (i.e. $1200 - $497.50) more than the producers' charge.
Answer:
This question is incomplete, the options are missing. The options are the following:
a) Highest price; highest total market value
b) Highest total market value; highest price
c) Highest price; lowest liquidity
d) Greatest number of shares outstanding; highest price
And the correct answer is the option B: Highest total market value; highest price.
Explanation:
To begin with, both terms the Dow Jones Averages and the Standard & Poor's are indexes for the respective american stock market in where the better companies of the country are in the list so that why that mostly of them will obviously have the highest total market value and its respectively highest price due to the fact that are the companies that produce more and work better than others and the public buy stocks from them and that makes them richer and richer.
Answer: (A) True
Explanation:
Yes, the given statement is true that the risk pooling is one of the type of strategy which basically helps in explaining about the demand variability and also decrease the aggregate demand variance in the market.
The main objective of the risk pooling is to maintain the inventory stock level and also avoiding the out of stock situation in the management.
By using the risk pooling strategy the various types of warehouse and companies are reduce the level of safety stock in the supply chain management and also transferring their risk to another organization such as insurance company.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
Answer: D. A & C
Explanation:
A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.
Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.
Answer:
5.47%
Explanation:
The computation of yield to maturity is shown in the attachment:
Given that
FV = $1000
PV = ($980)
PMT = 5% ÷ 2 × 1,000 = $25
Number of years = 5 years × 2 = 10 Years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula, the yield to maturity is
= 2.73 × 2
= 5.46%
Therefore with the help of spreadsheets (as attached), we could explain in a better manner.
