Answer:
The flexible-budget amount is $120,000
Explanation:
The flexible-budget amount is the same lump sum as the static budget.
Therefore, The flexible-budget amount is $120,000.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: In simple words, positive reinforcement means motivating someone to perform a job more efficiently and frequently by offering them some reward for doing so. While punishment refers to penalizing someone for any offense.
In the given case, James has been offering the incentives to his employees but have also made a clause to withhold them in case of unprofessional behavior.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is B .
Answer:
2040.
Explanation:
To reach the total manufacturing cost we need to calculate machining and assembling overhead rate first, in order to calculate the rate we need to divide manufacturing overhead cost on number of hours
Machining OH rate = 280000 / 50000 = 5.60
Assembling OH rate = 360000/40000 = 9.00
manufacturing cost:
machine Assembly Total
Material 425 175 600
labor 275 300 575
Overhead 865
(50*5.60) 280
(65*9) 585
Total cost 2040
Answer:
b. 7.28%
Explanation:
This question is asking for the yield to maturity(YTM) of the bond. You can solve this using a financial calculator with the inputs below. Additionally, adjust the coupon payment(PMT) and time to maturity(N) to semiannual basis.
Time to maturity; N = 5*2 = 10
Face value; FV = 1000
Price of bond; PV = -1071
Semiannual coupon payment; PMT = (9%/2) *1000 = 45
then compute semiannual interest rate; CPT I/Y = 3.64%
Next, convert the semiannual rate to annual rate(YTM) = 3.64% *2
YTM = 7.28%
Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:

WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7BFV%20%5C%3A%20inflow%7D%7BPV%20%5C%3A%20outflow%7D%7D%20-1)
![MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C268%2C386.82%7D%7B2%2C609%2C179.84%7D%7D%20-1)
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%