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Ad libitum [116K]
2 years ago
8

Norris Company declared cash dividends of $60,000 during the year. Cash dividends payable were $20,000 at the beginning of the y

ear and $25,000 at the end of the year. The amount of cash Norris Co. used for payment of dividends during the year was
a. $65,000

b. $55,000

c. $105,000

d. $80,000
Business
1 answer:
Studentka2010 [4]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b. $55,000

Explanation:

The movement in the dividend payable account which represents the difference between the payable opening an closing balances. This difference is due to dividend paid during the year as well as dividend declared and can be shown by the equation below.

Opening balance + Declared dividend -  dividend paid = closing dividend

$20,000 + $60,000 -dividend paid = $25,000

Dividend paid = $20,000 + $60,000 - $25,000

= $55,000

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On January 1, 2021, Tonge Industries had outstanding 480,000 common shares ($1 par) that originally sold for $30 per share, and
ira [324]

Answer:

842,000 shares

Explanation:

Please the solution to the given problem in the file attached below

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Knowledge Check 01 On January 1, Year 1, Abbott Company granted 92,000 stock options to certain executives. The options are exer
Westkost [7]

Answer:

$153,333

Explanation:

Calculation to determine What amount should Olympic recognize as compensation expense for 2016

Using this formula

Compensation expense =Total compensation/Vesting period

Let plug in the formula

Compensation expense=($5 x 92,000)/3 years

Compensation expense=$460,000/3 years

Compensation expense=$153,333

Therefore What amount should Olympic recognize as compensation expense for 2016 is $153,333

5 0
2 years ago
CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

6 0
3 years ago
Which of these options for saving money offers the lost liquidity?
daser333 [38]

The option of saving money that offers the most liquidity is a piggy bank. (option C)

<h3>What is liquidity?</h3>

Liquidity can be described as the ease with which an asset can easily be converted to cash. Paper currency and coins is the most liquid assets. Real estate is illiquid because it takes a long time for a real estate asset (e.g a house) to be sold and proceeds converted to cash.

Liquid assets earn less returns when compared with assets that are less liquid. This is because illiquid assets earn an illiquidity premium. An illiquidity premium compensates holders for holding an illiquid asset.

Money in a piggy bank is already in cash or coins and there is no need to convert it to cash again. Also, money in a piggybank is more accessible than the other options.

To learn more about liquidity, please check: brainly.com/question/15691477

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Identify which of the factors below are better short-range predictors and which are better long-range predictors of movements in
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

Short range predictors:

c. Nominal interest rate differential

d. Psychological effects

e. Investor expectations

f. Bandwagon effect

Long range predictors:

a. Relative monetary growth

b. Relative inflation rates

Explanation:

Nominal rate, the real rate, and inflation. long term predictors of an economic theory in which a relationship between inflation, nominal interest rate and real interest rate is identified. It defines that real interest rate is equal to inflation minus nominal interest rate.

Bandwagon effect is a short range predictor because it is effect of uptake when people follow others. They take decisions what other do and its their belief that other people have taken the right decision so we too. This is just a short term hop based on beliefs regardless of any underlying evidence.

8 0
3 years ago
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