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Mars2501 [29]
3 years ago
13

Wattan Company reports beginning inventory of 10 units at $60 each. Every week for four weeks it purchases an additional 10 unit

s at respective costs of $61, $62, $65, and $70 per unit for weeks 1 through 4. Compute the cost of goods available for sale and the units available for sale for this four-week period. Assume that no sales occur during those four weeks.
Business
1 answer:
qwelly [4]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

cost of goods available for sales= $3,180

Number of units= 50 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Wattan Company reports beginning inventory of 10 units at $60 each. Every week for four weeks it purchases an additional 10 units at respective costs of $61, $62, $65, and $70 per unit for weeks 1 through 4.

To calculate the cost of goods available for sales, we need to use the following formula:

cost of goods available for sales= beginning inventory + cost of goods purchase during the year

cost of goods available for sales= 10*60 + 10*61 + 10*62 + 10*65 + 10*70

cost of goods available for sales= $3,180

Number of units= 5*10= 50 units

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A company used the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Dr Bad Debt Expense $44,000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $44,000

Explanation:

Preparation of What adjusting Journal entry should the company make at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense

Based on the information given the adjusting Journal entry that the company should make at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense will be:

Dr Bad Debt Expense $44,000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $44,000

(Net Sales 2,200,000*Estimated 2.0% of net sales)

(Being to record estimated bad debts expense)

5 0
3 years ago
Libre, Inc. has experienced bad debt losses of 5% of credit sales in prior periods. At the end of the year, the balance of Accou
Mama L [17]

Answer:

The estimated bad debt expense for the year amounts to $9,400

Explanation:

The  estimated bad debt expense  for the year is computed as:

As the percentage of credit sales method is used for estimating the bad debt expense. Therefore, it is computed as:

Bad debt expense = Net Credit Sales × Estimate Percent

where

Net credit sales amounts to $188,000

Estimate percent is 5%

So, putting the values above:

Bad debt expense = $188,000 × 5%

Bad debt expense = $9,400

Therefore, the bad debt expense amounts to $9,400

3 0
3 years ago
The following data are available for the Phelps Corporation for a recent month: Product A Product B Product C Total Sales $ 150,
mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

$277,000

Explanation:

Break even is the point where neither profit nor a loss is made by the company.

<u>Determination of Break-even Sales</u>

Sales - Variable Expenses - Fixed Expenses = 0

Therefore, Solving Algebraically

Sales = Variable Expenses + Fixed Expenses

         = 222,000 + 55,000

         = 277,000

Therefore Break-even sales for the month for the company is closest to $277,000

5 0
3 years ago
Joan grows pumpkins. If Joan plants no seeds on her farm, she gets no harvest. If she plants 1 bag of seeds, she gets 500 pumpki
valkas [14]

Answer: Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Correct option: Decreasing marginal product.

Marginal product is the change in the level of output, when there will be an extra input employed in the production of a certain commodity.

So, Marginal Product = \frac{change\ in\ Q}{Change\ in\ I}

Where,

Q = Output

I = Input

Marginal product of 1st bag = 500

Marginal product of 2nd bag =  \frac{800-500}{2-1} = 300

Marginal product of 3rd bag =  \frac{900-800}{3-2} = 100

∴ From the above calculations, we can seen that as we employed one more bag of seeds as a result marginal product goes on diminishing.

Hence, Joan's production function exhibits decreasing marginal product.

3 0
4 years ago
Alpha Industries is considering a project with an initial cost of $9.7 million. The project will produce cash inflows of $1.67 m
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:

$660,000

Explanation:

WACC = [wD * kD * (1 - t)] + [wE * kE]

WACC = [(0.77 / 1.77)*6.12%* (1 - 0.40)] + [(1 / 1.77)*11.61%]

WACC = 1.60% + 6.56%

WACC = 8.16%

Present value of annuity = Annuity*[1-(1+interest rate)^-time period]/rate

Present value of annuity = $1.67*[1-(1.08156745763)^-9]/0.0816

Present value of annuity = $1.67*6.206374532

Present value of annuity = $10.36 million

NPV = Present value of inflows - Present value of outflows

NPV = $10.36 million - $9.7 million

NPV = $660,000

5 0
3 years ago
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