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Otrada [13]
3 years ago
9

Value discounting refers to the fact that the percieved value of the reinforcer is less the longer you have to wait for it. See

your text for review. Consider the perceived value of getting $100.00 today. Then, consider and tell me how valuable $100.00 would be for you if you got the money tomorrow, 30 days from now150 days from now, or 300 days from now. Consider the shape of discounting functions in your text when answering
Mathematics
1 answer:
vekshin13 years ago
5 0

Answer:

there is an economic principle that states that 1 dollar today is worth more than 1 dollar in the future, since an invested dollar could earn interests and gain value.

For example, we can assume a 6% interest rate (0.5% monthly interest rate), and using the present value formula we can determine the present value of $100:

  • given to us in 30 days = $100 / (1 + 0.5%)¹ = $99.50
  • given to us in 150 days = $100 / (1 + 0.5%)⁵ = $97.54
  • given to us in 300 days = $100 / (1 + 0.5%)¹⁰ = $95.13

In order to calculate the value of $100 given to us tomorrow, we would need to determine a daily interest rate = 6% / 360 = 0.00017

  • $100 given to us tomorrow = $100 / (1 + 0.00017)¹ = $99.98

since the amount of money is not that large and the interest rate is rather low, the difference in value is not that large. But imagine if you used a 24% interest rate instead of 6% (monthly interest rate = 2%)

  • $100 given to us in 30 days = $100 / (1 + 2%)¹ = $98.04
  • $100 given to us in 150 days = $100 / (1 + 2%)⁵ = $90.57
  • $100 given to us in 300 days = $100 / (1 + 2%)¹⁰ = $82.03

as the interest rate increases, the present value decreases.

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Can someone help with this question?
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Starting from the y-intercept of course, use rise\run until you hit another endpoint [finding the <em>rate</em><em> </em><em>of change</em> (<em>slope</em>)]. That means me we go up <em>north</em><em> </em>one block, then go over four blocks <em>east</em><em>,</em><em> </em>and since the slope is already simplified, we do not need to go any further. Now all we have left is to determine the correct inequality symbol, and since we know that the bottom portion of the graph is shared, we automatically know it is <em>less</em><em> </em><em>than</em><em>,</em><em> </em>but to check this, we need to do what is called a <em>zero-interval</em><em> </em><em>test</em><em> </em>[do not recall the actual term], meaning that we plug in 0 for both <em>y</em><em> </em>and <em>x</em><em>,</em><em> </em>getting 0 < 1, which is a GENUINE statement, so the bottom portion stays shaded, otherwise we would have had to shade the top portion if it were a false statement. Finally, we have to determine if we have to add an equivalence line under the inequality symbol, and we DO because as you can see, the line is SOLID BLACK. If it were DASHED BLACK, then it would stay "<" instead of "≤".

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

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