Answer:
5,110,000 and 5,170,000. 
Explanation:
earnings per share EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / weighted average of outstanding shares
- 4,800,000 at the beginning of the year
- 200,000 issued April 1 = 200,000 x 9/12 = 150,000
- 480,000 issued September 1 = 480,000 x 4/12 = 160,000
weighted average outstanding shares = 4,800,000 + 150,00 + 160,000 = 5,110,000
diluted shares = ($6,000,000 / $1,000) x 40 x 3/12 = 60,000
diluted EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / (weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares)
weighted average of outstanding shares + diluted shares = 5,110,000 + 60,000 = 5,170,000 shares
 
        
             
        
        
        
<span>If the ratio of 10% and assuming that banks keep no excess reserves, imagine that $300 is deposited into a checking account, then $ 1,287 is the amount for the money supply to increase if the fed lowers the required reserve ratio to 7%.</span>
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The answer is D
Explanation:
The formula - Revenues / Total Assets is not one of the ways to calculate Return on Investment (ROI)
Return on Investment (ROI) is a ratio
net profit to cost of investment(total money invested the project or compnay)
The numerator must be profit while the denominator must be related to cost of Investment.
In all of the options, it is only option D that has revenue(sales) as the numerator which makes it automatically wrong.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer / Explanation:
First, we need to understand what variance analysis is. Variance analysis is the qualitative and quantitative measure of the difference between actual financial value and the budgeted financial value.
This helps us to properly monitor our rate of spending against our profit or loss margin. it also assist in proper fund management.
Now talking about how the company will utilize variance analysis, the company will utilize variance analysis in the aspect of fixed over head spending. In the sense that it will be used to measure manpower productivity against overhead spending. This will help us to proper affirm if the rate of manpower productivity equal fixed overhead spending. In the case where fixed overhead spending is more than man hour productivity ratio, then the company will be running at a loss. This is basically a way of measuring productivity performance of man power and also assets.
 
        
             
        
        
        
 because they are the ones that provide me goods and services.