Answer:
![(D)E[ X ] =np.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28D%29E%5B%20X%20%5D%20%3Dnp.)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p,


Since each term of the summation is multiplied by x, the value of the term corresponding to x = 0 will be 0. Therefore the expected value becomes:

Now,

Substituting,

Factoring out the n and one p from the above expression:

Representing k=x-1 in the above gives us:

This can then be written by the Binomial Formula as:
![E[ X ] = (np) (p +(1 - p))^{n -1 }= np.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5B%20X%20%5D%20%3D%20%28np%29%20%28p%20%2B%281%20-%20p%29%29%5E%7Bn%20-1%20%7D%3D%20np.)
Answer:
It’s 60miles
Step-by-step explanation:
We assume the trip is "d" miles and that the "extra hour" refers to the additional time that a current of 2 mph would add. That is, we assume the reference time is for a current of 0 mph.
The time with no current is ...
time1 = distance/speed
time1 = d/12 . . . . hours
With a current of 2 mph in the opposite direction, the time is ...
time2 = d/(12 -2) = d/10
The second time is 1 hour longer than the first, so we have ...
time2 = 1 + time1
d/10 = 1 + d/12
6d = 60 + 5d . . . . multiply by 60
d = 60 . . . . . . . . . subtract 5d
The one-way distance is 60 miles.
Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
Our expression:
2 * (18 + - 8)
Plus then minus (+ -) is the same as just minus ( - )
Some examples:
1 + (+ 1) = 2
1 + (- 1) = 0
1 - (+ 1) = 0
1 - (- 1) = 2
Thus, 18 + - 8 is the same as 18 - 8
2 * (18 + - 8) =
= 2 * (18 - 8) =
= 2* (10) =
= 2 * 10 =
= 20
Answer: 20
Answer:
-33/4 or -8 1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
Make similar terms:
-5/4 - 28/4: then solve
-5 - 28 = -33: put over 4
-33/4: simplify
-8 1/4
We can use the Pythagorean theorum
a^2+b^2=c^2
c^2 is the length of the longest side squared
so
6^2 + b^2 = 10^2
36+ b^2 = 100
-36 -36
b^2 = 64
b = 8
b is the same thing as your "x", so x = 8