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2 years ago

Can somebody help me on the questions I post please mark you brainliest

Mathematics

2 answers:

Natasha2012 [34]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

sure

Step-by-step explanation:

GarryVolchara [31]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

on your profile?

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

Graph x<2.

bazaltina [42]

Answer:

A graph showing a range of negative three to two on the x and y axes. A dotted line with arrows at both ends that passes through the x axis at two and runs parallel to the y axis. The graph is shaded to the left of the line.

Step-by-step explanation:

The inequality given is x < 2. This means x is less than two are the values that satisfy the equation.

The equation can be written as x=2 to identify the position where the line will pass. The line is dotted and will pass through x=2 to be parallel with the y-axis.

The second and third answers are not correct because the line should not be solid.

The first answer is not correct because the shaded part should be to the left of the line.

5 0

2 years ago

In the figure below, all lines intersect at point W. What is the value of angle VWX?*

Tju [1.3M]

Answer: 55

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle VWX and the 55 degree angle are vertical angles.

6 0

2 years ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

2 years ago

I need help on this !!! ANYBODY PLS WITH THE CORRECT ANSWER PLS HELP!!

zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

I honestly think the answer is Zero

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

A carpenter used 9 1/2 ft of cedar for every 7 2/3 ft of redwood for a construction project. If the carpenter uses 4 3/4 ft of c

german

We can make a proportion to represent the woods used. On the top is cedar, and on the bottom is the redwood. On the left is what was used the first time, on the right is the current problem.

Before making the proportion, let's do a preliminary step and write all the fractions as improper fractions. We do this because we can't directly multiply or divide mixed numbers, but we can with fractions.

$9\frac{1}{2} = \frac{2 * 9 + 1}{2} =\frac{19}{2}$ <-- Multiply denominator times whole number and add the leftover fraction.

$7\frac{2}{3} = \frac{3 * 7 + 2}{3} =\frac{23}{3}$

$4\frac{3}{4} = \frac{4 * 4 + 3}{4} =\frac{19}{4}$

Now we set up the proportion. We solve it by cross multiplying.

$\frac{Cedar}{Redwood} =\frac{Cedar}{Redwood}$

$\frac{19/2}{23/3} =\frac{19/4}{R}$

$\frac{19}{2} R = \frac{23}{3} *\frac{19}{4}$

It may seem right to simplify the right side, but let's leave it alone. We divide both sides by 19/2.

$R = (\frac{23}{3} *\frac{19}{4} ) / \frac{19}{2}$

Dividing by a fraction means multiplying by its reciprocal. Thus,

$R = \frac{23}{3} *\frac{19}{4} * \frac{2}{19}$

Here's where not simplifying really pays off. We can simplify NOW and the terms go away more easily. The 19s go away and simplify to 1, and the 2 and 4 simplify to 1 and 2. All this happens by dividing out common numbers.

$R = \frac{23}{3} *\frac{1}{2} * \frac{1}{1}$

Now we multiply all the tops and all the bottoms.

R = 23 * 1 * 1 / 3 * 2 * 1

R = 23 / 6

While R is 23/6, we need to make it a mixed number. The way we made mixed numbers as improper fractions happens here, except in reverse.

23 ÷ 6 = 3 with a remainder of 5, as 3 × 6 + 5 = 23. Thus, $\frac{23}{6} = 3\frac{5}{6}$ .

As a result, $3\frac{5}{6}$ feet of redwood is needed.

8 0

3 years ago

Can somebody help me on the questions I post please mark you brainliest​

Can somebody help me on the questions I post please mark you brainliest