I have an expression
floating around in my head; let's see if it makes sense.
The variance of binary valued random variable b that comes up 1 with probability p (so has mean p) is
That's for an individual sample. For the observed average we divide by n, and for the standard deviation we take the square root:
Plugging in the numbers,
One standard deviation of the average is almost 2% so a 27% outcome was 3/1.9 = 1.6 standard deviations from the mean, corresponding to a two sided probability of a bit bigger than 10% of happening by chance.
So this is borderline suspect; most surveys will include a two sigma margin of error, say plus or minus 4 percent here, and the results were within those bounds.
Multiply first equation by -5 and 2nd by 2, add them
15x+20y=-100
<u>2x-20y=32 +</u>
17x+0y=-68
17x=-68
divide both sides by 17
x=-4
the x value is -4
Answer:
212 bp^3 (base pairs cubed) - 121 bp^3 (base pairs cubed) + 222 bp^3 (base pairs cubed) = 313 bp^3 (base pairs cubed)
Step-by-step explanation:
<span>Find
the gross pay of Mr. Anderson in a week.
He earns 200 dollars a week + 15% commission on over 1000 dollars sales.
In a week he earned 2500 dollars.
=> Pls, take note, that he can only get a 15% commission for over 1000
dollars sales he get.
=> 2 500 dollars – 1 000 dollars
=> 1 500 dollars, now in 1500 dollars get the 15% commission
=> 1 500 x .15
=> 225 + 200 (his original earnings)
=> 425 dollars.</span><span>
</span>
Answer:
Yes, that is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
