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3 years ago

In which situation would an employer be required to pay overtime?

Business

1 answer:

madreJ [45]3 years ago

3 0

Situations in which an employer would be required to pay overtime are:

A salaried employee works on a Saturday

A salaried employee works on a federal holiday

Explanation:

Overtime payments are required b the law to pay to a firm when they make their employees work over the permissible limit of work or hat is allowed int he job contract as the work limit for the company.

The concept is introduced for salaried workers as the work for a salary for the month and not on the hourly basis.

They are to be paid whenever they are made to work over whatever is in their contract which includes Saturday for most workers who do not have an off then and also on federal holidays invariably.

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GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

Required a

April 5,

Merchandise $38,900 (debit)

Accounts Payable ; Culver Company $38,900 (credit)

April 6

Freight Cost $800 (debit)

Cash $800 (credit)

April 7

Equipment $39,900 (debit)

Accounts Payable $39,900 (credit)

April 8

Accounts Payable ; Culver Company $5,000 (debit)

Merchandise $5,000 (credit)

April 15

Accounts Payable ; Culver Company $33,900 (debit)

Discount Received $678 (credit)

Cash $33,222 (credit)

Required b.

Accounts Payable ; Culver Company $33,900 (debit)

Cash $33,900 (credit)

Explanation:

When Tamarisk, Inc. paid the balance due to Culver Company on April 15, the payment is made within the discount period. Thus Tamarisk, Inc is granted a discount of 2% and pays the Account at $33,222 (net of credit granted on merchandise previously returned) .

However, when Tamarisk, Inc. paid the balance due to Culver Company on May 4 instead, the payment is made outside the discount period. Thus Tamarisk, Inc is not granted a discount pays the Account in full at $33,900 (net of credit granted on merchandise previously returned) .

6 0

3 years ago

If the Fed increases its open market purchases of government securities, it exerts a downward pressure on real interest rates. S

8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

Liquidity Effect

Explanation:

The liquidity effect is one of the resulting outcomes of the government policies which increases money in the economy system. However, the liquidity effect is the cause of the reduction in the real interest rates.

Therefore, If the Fed increases its open market purchases of government securities, it exerts downward pressure on real interest rates. This situation is commonly referred to as LIQUIDITY EFFECT.

8 0

3 years ago

How many free credit reports are you legally entitled to each year

Leokris [45]

One from each credit bureau per year, so in total three per year.

8 0

3 years ago

Legal Forces Legal forces are important external forces that international managers need to understand. They are developed at th

torisob [31]

Answer:

1. per se application

U.S. Competition Law

This law checks whether certain parts of a contract or agreement have violated US antitrust laws.

2. Misuse of activity

EU Competition Law

This is part of the European Union's competition law that prohibits the use of activity to try to gain unfair advantges.

3. Extraterritoriality

US and EU

This is a provision in both US and EU anti-competition and anti-trust laws that states that the activities of foreign companies fall under the law if these activities influence the people within the jurisdiction of the US or the EU.

4. Trade obstacle, nontariff

France

These are a part of the French system.

5. Strict liability

U.S. Tort Law

A concept in US Tort law that states that a person is liable for an offence they committed and their state of mind or intent when they committed said offence is irrelevant.

6. Punitive damages

U.S. Product Liability Law

A concept in the US that allows for the extra punishment of the party in the wrong to dissuade others from doing so and to reward the party in the right more justly.

4 0

3 years ago

In year 1, X Company recognized an impairment loss on the trade name for its beverage product, reducing the carrying value from

ziro4ka [17]

Answer:

The value of the intangible will remain at $350,000

Explanation:

The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.

6 0

3 years ago