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Genrish500 [490]
3 years ago
15

Bruce & Co. expects its EBIT to be $185,000 every year forever. The firm can borrow at 9 percent. Bruce currently has no deb

t, and its cost of equity is 16 percent. If the tax rate is 35 percent, what is the value of the firm? What will the value be if Bruce borrows $135,000 and uses the proceeds to repurchase shares (based on the MM Proposition)? (Assume that the debt is perpetual in the 2nd question.)
Business
1 answer:
ivolga24 [154]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$751,562.50 and $837,203.125

Explanation:

The formula to compute the value of the firm under the MM proposition approach is shown below:

In first case

= {EBIT × ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$185,000 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $120,250 ÷ 16%

= $751,562.50

Since no debt is there which means the firm is unlevered firm and computation is done accordingly.

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

In second case

= {EBT× ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$172,850 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $112,352.50 ÷ 16%

= $702,203.125

EBT = $185,000 - $135,000 × 9%

       = $185,000 - $12,150

       = $172,850

So, the value of firm would be

= $702,203.125 + $135,000

= $837,203.125

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Determine the tax consequences to Euclid from the following independent events. Round the per share answer to the nearest cent.
Levart [38]

Answer:

$100 per share

Explanation:

Complete question: <em>As a result of the stock dividend, Euclid's per share basis is $?</em>

<em />

The Total stock is 500 shares for $50,000 Basis = 50,000 / 500 = $100

Hence, Euclid's per share basis is = $100 per share

8 0
3 years ago
Modern Federal Bank is setting up a brand-new branch. The cost of the project will be $1.2 million. The branch will create addit
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

23.12%

Explanation:

Internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which the Net present value (NPV) of a project equals to zero.

Using a financial calculator and the CF function, input the following to find IRR;

Initial investment; CF0 = -1,200,000

Yr1 cashflow inflow ; C01 = 235,000

Yr2 cashflow inflow ; C02 = 412,300

Yr3 cashflow inflow ; C03 = 665,000

Yr4 cashflow inflow ; C04 = 875,000

Then key in IRR CPT = 23.119%

Therefore, the Internal rate of return this expansion is 23.12%

3 0
3 years ago
Afirm has production function q=10"(L^0.5)*(K^0.5), where "L"0.5" means "L raised to the 0.5 power," and the same applies to the
Amanda [17]

Answer:

(A) 15 × p

(B) 225\times p{^2}

(C)  P\times 5\times k^{0.5}

Explanation:

(B) direct= demand function of labor will be,

Q: f(w),

where Q is labor demand quantity and is function of wage

K=9 constant, then production function changes to,

=30L^{0.5}

Marginal product of labor:

= 15L^{-0.5}

Marginal revenue product or value of marginal product:

=15p\times L^{- 0.5}

This is showing what revenue a firm will generate due to hiring one additional unit of labor.

So firm will keep hiring until the revenue the additional labor is generating is equal to its hiring cost or wage.

So, putting MRP or VMP to wage:

P\times15\times L^{-0.5}=W

By solving,

\frac{(225\times p^{2})}{W^{2}}=L

And the multiplicative term is 225\times p{^2}

(A) Inverse demand function of labor will be,

W: f(Q)  

where W is wage rate and demand function of labor demanded quantity.

As previously solved,

P\times15 \times L^{0.5}=W

and the multiplicative constant term is 15 × p.

(c) In long run capital will also variate, so production function will be,

=10L^{0.5}\times k{^0.5}

MP=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

VMP=\frac{P(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

( p is market price of good that firm is producing using labor)

putting it equal to Wage)

W=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

and the constant term is  P\times 5\times k^{0.5}.

Note:

I did a) second place and b) on first . I already put the serial alphabet on the start of the answer.

8 0
3 years ago
Malko Enterprises’ bonds currently sell for $1,020. They have a 6-year maturity, an annual coupon of $75, and a par value of $1,
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

Current yield = <u>Annual coupon</u>

                         Current market price

Current yield = <u>$75</u>

                         $1,020

Current yield = 0.0735 = 7.35%

The correct answer is D

Explanation:

Current yield equals annual coupon divided by the current market price of the bond.

3 0
3 years ago
Question 3 of 10
Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

C. Just managers. I hope this helps

6 0
3 years ago
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