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3 years ago

5!·4! is equivalent to:

Mathematics

2 answers:

xxMikexx [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

2880 or 20!

Step-by-step explanation:

Whenever you have a number with a (!) after it, it means that the number is in factorial. So if you have a equation like 3!, it would be equal to 3·2·1. So in that case—

5! = 1·2·3·4·5

We can multiply this sequence of numbers simply.

1·2·3·4·5=120

Now, since we have the first factorial, we move on to the second.

4!=1·2·3·4

Again, we can multiply this sequence simply.

1·2·3·4=24

Now we move on to the final step. We have factoriazed the numbers, so we can substitute those in the equation.

120·24

Now we can finally multiply these 2 numbers to get your answer.

120·24=2880

That is the evaluation.

If you want to simplify the expression, multiply the numbers.

4!·5!=20!

Rudik [331]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

20!

Step-by-step explanation:

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From a deck of five cards numbered 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10, respectively, a card is drawn at random and replaced. this is done three

Serga [27]

Since the sum of the numbers on the three draws is 12, if we want the card numbered 2 to be drawn exactly two times, the third card can only be numbered 8. In fact, $2+2+8 = 12$ , and there are no other possibilities, unless you consider the various permutations of the terms.

So, we have three favourable cases: we can draw 2,2,8, or 2,8,2, or 8,2,2. This are the only three cases where the card numbered 2 is drawn exactly two times, and the sum of the number on the three draws is 12.

Now, the question is: we have three favourable cases over how many? Well, we have 5 possible outcomes with each draws, and the three draws are identical, because we replace the card we draw every time.

So, we have 5 possible outcomes for the first draw, 5 for the second and 5 for the third. This leads to a total of $5 \times 5 \times 5 = 5^3 = 125$ possible triplets.

Once we know the "good" cases and the total number of possible cases, the probability is simply computed as

$P = \cfrac{\text{number of favourable cases}}{\text{number of all possible cases}} = \cfrac{3}{125}$

3 0

3 years ago

You are dealt one card from a 52-card deck. Find the probability that you are not dealt a club

saveliy_v [14]

More card math! Easy!!

Exactly 1/4 of a 52-card deck of cards is clubs. Another 1/4 spades, another 1/4 is hearts, and the final 1/4 is diamonds. To find what one fourth of 52is, you can divide 52 by 4. That equals 13. So there are 13 clubs in the entire deck of cards. If you are trying not to get a club, you have to find the remainder of the cards without those 13. 52 - 13 = 39. This means that you have 39/52 odds of not getting a club. Simplified you get 3/4.

I did it the long way. A shorter was is to see that, obviously, one whole minus one fourth is three fourths.

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3 years ago

What is the slope (2,6) (-1, -5)

egoroff_w [7]

answer is 11/3.

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mark me brainleist pls

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3 years ago

Find the product of −1 and −3

Lesechka [4]

Step-by-step explanation:

the product of −1 and −3

(-1)×(-3)

= 3

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Tim is investigating the relationship between the number of years since a tree was planted and the height of the tree in feet. H

wolverine [178]

Answer: There is not a good prediction for the height of the tree when it is 100 years old because the prediction given by the trend line produced by the regression calculator probably is not valid that far in the future.

Step-by-step explanation:

Years since tree was planted (x) - - - - height (y)

2 - - - - 17

3 - - - - 25

5 - - - 42

6 - - - - 47

7 - - - 54

9 - - - 69

Using a regression calculator :

The height of tree can be modeled by the equation : ŷ = 7.36X + 3.08

With y being the predicted variable; 7.36 being the slope and 3.08 as the intercept.

X is the independent variable which is used in calculating the value of y.

Predicted height when years since tree was planted(x) = 100

ŷ = 7.36X + 3.08

ŷ = 7.36(100) + 3.08

y = 736 + 3.08

y = 739.08

Forward prediction of 100 years produced by the trendline would probably give an invalid value because the trendline only models a range of 9 years prediction. However, a linear regression equation isn't the best for making prediction that far in into the future.

3 0

3 years ago