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jeka94
3 years ago
9

One result of earnings management is:a.It brings into question the quality of earningsb.It uses a non-GAAP financial measure to

manipulate earningsc.EBITDA does not reflect GAAP earningsd.It improves shareholder returns over time
Business
1 answer:
HACTEHA [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A. It brings into question the quality of earnings.

Explanation:

It will be taken as management to the action of administering in the most efficient way to that profit that we obtained. When talking about efficiency, it points to the idea that money made up of profit must be spent intelligently.

To understand that not all money from a profit must be spent on personal matters. This does not mean that a certain part is not destined for it, because otherwise there will be no motivation to generate profit on a personal level. That is why it is important to know how to distribute the profit obtained in the most intelligent way possible. For this you only have to allocate 60% (the percentage is estimated the same can vary), to spend the money of a profit on personal expenses. Then one wonders what will happen with the remaining 40% (estimated percentage)? This is where intelligence comes in to manage the profit, this percentage must be used for reinvestment and also to form a contingency fund. This seeks to generate a multiplier effect of the capital earned and also form a "cushion" (savings) for when things are not right.

This type of profit management can be applied either at the company level: where part of the profit is reinvested to grow the business. And in turn it forms a contingency fund for any mishap that can be generated over time.

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Which part of the Business Cycle would this graph represent?
Archy [21]

bust is the correct answer

3 0
2 years ago
Pension funds pay lifetime annuities to recipients. If a firm will remain in business indefinitely, the pension obligation will
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

Duration of liability (perpetual) = (1 + y) / y

= (1 + 17.5%) / 17.5%

= 6.71

Value of liability = Cash Flow / yield

= $3.5 million / 17.5%

= $20 million

a. Assume you invest w in 5-year bond and 1-w in 25-year bond such that the duration of the portfolio is 6.71

6.71 = w x 4 + (1 - w) x 16

w = (16 - 6.71) / (16 - 4)

w = 77% in 5-year bond

1 - w = 28% in 25 year bond

Market Value of 5 year bond = 77% * $20 million = $15.4 million

Market Value of 20 year bond = 23% * $20 million = $4.6 million

b. Market Price of 20 year bond can be calculated using PV function on a calculator

N = 25, I/Y = 17.5%, PMT = 9, FV = 100

Price = Present Value (25,17.5%, 9 ,100)

Price = 52.29042644

Price = $52.30

Par Value of 25 year bond = Market Value /% Price

Par Value of 25 year bond = $4.6 million / 50.83%

Par Value of 25 year bond = $9,049,774

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT an important business process for managing the supply chain?
Dimas [21]

Answer: C. Responding to customer request promptly

Explanation: Supply chain management is the process of coordination of all incoming(inbound) and all outgoing logistics on order to ensure that the manufacturing operations are effectively handled. Supply chain management also involves management of process technology by ensuring that all spare parts and equipment are provided to ensure that manufacturing (Batch or continuous) is done properly.

7 0
4 years ago
Below is a partial portion of Jolex’s adjusted trial balance. Cash 12,692 Accounts Payable 5,443 Retained Earnings 1,593 Sales R
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

$ 5,937.00  

Explanation:

The credit to retained earnings in the year would be the net income for the year which is computed as sales and rent revenue added together minus salaries and wages expense,depreciation expense , utilities expense recorded in the year.

Net income=$13,108+$2,756-$6,639-$1,610-$1,678=$ 5,937.00  

All in all,the credit to retained earnings would be $ 5,937.00  

The net income is the amount by which the overall retained earnings would  increase in the current year

7 0
3 years ago
You have $500,000 available to invest. The risk-free rate as well as your borrowing rate is 8%. The return on the risky portfoli
malfutka [58]

Answer:

d.borrow $375,000

Explanation:

Given that

Amount available to invest = $500,000

Risk free rate = 8%

Return on the risky portfolio = 16%

Now the computation is shown below:

The interest rate should be

Interest amount on borrowings = $375,000 × 8% = $30,000

So, the total amount available to invest is

= $500,000 + $375,000

= $875,000

Now the total inflow is

= $140,000 - $30,000

= $110,000

The $140,000 is come from

= $875,000 × 16%

So the 22% is come from

= $110,000 ÷ $500,000

6 0
3 years ago
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