Complete question:
Bradley currently has a Visa card from his bank with the following terms: 21 percent on purchases, 25 percent on cash advances with a 3 percent cash advance fee on the amount, and a default or penalty rate of 33 percent. His current statement shows a balance of $9,000. Lately, he has been having a hard time paying more than the minimum payment of 3 percent of his balance.
What is Bradley's minimum payment?
A) $158
B) $189
C) $270
D) $1,890
Answer:
Bradley's minimum payment is (C) $270.
<h3>What is the percentage?</h3>
- A percentage is a fraction of a whole expressed as a number between 0 and 100.
- Nothing is zero percent, everything is 100 percent, half of everything is fifty percent, and nothing is zero percent.
- To calculate a percentage, divide the share of the total by the total and multiply by 100.
<h3>Solution -</h3>
Given - 21 percent on purchases, 25 percent on cash advances with a 3 percent cash advance fee on the amount, and a default or penalty rate of 33 percent. His current statement shows a balance of $9,000. Her minimum payment is 3 percent of the balance.
So, to find the minimum payment find 3% of $9000.
3% of $9,000 = $270.
Therefore, Bradley's minimum payment is (C) $270.
Know more about percentages here:
brainly.com/question/24304697
#SPJ4
Answer:
Year 1, Year 2 purchasing power = 8 , 9 (respectively). As price level fall, value of money<u> Increases </u>
Explanation:
Year one purchasing power = Money ($) / Price per basket = 72 / 9 = 8
Year two purchasing power = Money ($) / Price per basket = 72 / 8 = 9
This implies that, as price level falls (from 9 to 8 here) ,the value of money ie purchasing power increases (from 8 to 9)
That would be known as taxable income
Answer:
1500
Explanation:
Breakeven point is the number of units produced and sold where net income is art on it is where revenue equals cost.
The formula for calculating break even points = F / (P - V)
F = fixed cost
P = price
V = variable cost per unit
$270,000 / ($600 - $420) = 1500
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
¥114.96/€
Explanation:
An intermarket arbitrage opportunity is the act of exploiting an arbitrage opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies in the foreign exchange market. Trading in foreign exchange takes place worldwide, the major currency trading centers are located in London, New York, and Tokyo.
In the given question, if you reverse all three exchange rates by calculating 1/rate (change yendollar into dollaryen and so forth), the choice that represents the required opportunity is ¥114.96/€
